You pick airway, oxygen, and breathing actions in the order a nurse actually moves. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five respiratory questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Partial pressure of oxygen in the inspired and expired air is respectively
A. 158 and 116 mm Hg
B. 158 and 40 mm Hg
C. 100 and 95 mm Hg
D. 40 and 95 mm hg
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — 158 and 116 mm Hg
The correct answer is A (158 and 116 mm Hg) because in inspired air, the partial pressure of oxygen is around 158 mm Hg, which corresponds to the atmospheric oxygen level. During expiration, some oxygen is exchanged for carbon dioxide, leading to a decrease in oxygen partial pressure to around 116 mm Hg.
Choice B is incorrect because the partial pressure of oxygen in expired air is not as high as 40 mm Hg, which is too low for the oxygen content in the air we breathe.
Choice C is incorrect because the partial pressure of oxygen in inspired air is not exactly 100 mm Hg, and the partial pressure in expired air is not as close to 95 mm Hg.
Choice D is incorrect because the partial pressure of oxygen in inspired air is not as low as 40 mm Hg, and the partial pressure in expired air is not as high as 95 mm Hg.
Question 2
With respect to regional gas exchange in the upright lung
A. Ventilation is greater at the top of the lungs
B. Perfusion is much greater at the top of the lungs compared with the bases
C. Ventilation/perfusion ratio is abnormally high at the top of the lungs
D. PO2 is highest at the bases of the lungs
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Ventilation/perfusion ratio is abnormally high at the top of the lungs
In the upright lung, the ventilation/perfusion (V̇/Q̇) ratio is highest at the apex (choice C), due to gravity's effect. Ventilation is greater at the base (choice A is false), as dependent alveoli expand more. Perfusion is also greater at the base (choice B is false), with blood flow higher in lower zones (e.g., 4:1 base-to-apex ratio). V̇/Q̇ at the apex (≈3) exceeds the ideal 0.8, being ‘abnormally high' relative to perfect matching, while the base is ≈0.6. PO₂ is highest at the apex (choice D is false), as high V̇/Q̇ over-ventilates relative to perfusion; bases have lower PO₂ due to lower V̇/Q̇. pH follows PO₂ trends, not bases (choice E false). C's high V̇/Q̇ reflects physiological mismatch, driving regional gas exchange differences.
Question 3
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a 64-year-old client with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which factor should the nurse focus on during the teaching session?
A. Family history of coronary artery disease
B. Elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level
C. Greater risk associated with the patient's gender
D. Increased risk of cardiovascular disease with aging
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level
The correct answer is B: Elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level. This is the most relevant factor to focus on during the teaching session for a client with CAD. Elevated LDL levels are a major risk factor for the development and progression of CAD. By addressing this factor, the nurse can educate the client on the importance of managing cholesterol levels through diet, exercise, and medication.
Incorrect choices:
A: Family history of CAD - While family history is a risk factor, it cannot be modified through education alone.
C: Greater risk associated with the patient's gender - Gender is a non-modifiable risk factor and not the primary focus for teaching.
D: Increased risk of cardiovascular disease with aging - While age is a risk factor, the focus should be on modifiable risk factors like LDL levels.
Question 4
Regarding lung compliance, all of the following are correct EXCEPT?
A. Expressed as unit change in volume per unit change in pressure
B. Maximal during quiet breathing
C. The more surface tension, the more the compliance
D. Decreases in fibrosis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — The more surface tension, the more the compliance
Lung compliance (C = ΔV / ΔP) measures volume change per pressure unit, correctly defined. It's not maximal during quiet breathing (VT ~500 ml) compliance peaks at moderate volumes, declining near TLC due to stiffness, making that false but not the exception here. The statement more surface tension, more compliance' is incorrect high tension (e.g., no surfactant) reduces compliance by stiffening alveoli, per Laplace's law (P = 2T/r), as in RDS, while low tension increases it. Fibrosis decreases compliance via collagen stiffening true. Emphysema (not listed) raises compliance by elasticity loss. The surface tension error contradicts physiology compliance falls with rising tension, making it the exception, as surfactant's role is to enhance compliance by reducing tension, critical for understanding lung mechanics.
Question 5
Regarding lung diseases, one of the following is true?
A. Increase in the diameter of the airways by 10% results in a increase in airway resistance by more than 10%
B. COPDs are least common seen in clinical practice
C. Pulmonary fibrosis is an example of increase airway resistance
D. In pulmonary fibrosis, FEV1/FVC ratio is greater or equivalent to normal
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — In pulmonary fibrosis, FEV1/FVC ratio is greater or equivalent to normal
In pulmonary fibrosis, a restrictive disease, lung stiffness reduces volumes (FEV1, FVC), but the FEV1/FVC ratio remains ≥80% (normal or higher), as both drop proportionally, unlike obstructive diseases where it's <70% this is true. Airway resistance (R) ∠1/r^4 (Poiseuille's law); a 10% diameter increase reduces R dramatically (~40%), not increases it, making that false. COPD (e.g., emphysema, chronic bronchitis) is highly common, not least, due to smoking prevalence. Pulmonary fibrosis doesn't increase airway resistance (an obstructive feature); it reduces compliance, with resistance normal or slightly altered by volume loss. The FEV1/FVC ratio's preservation in fibrosis reflects its restrictive nature, distinguishing it as the true statement, aligning with spirometric patterns and disease mechanics.
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Question 6
A 34-year-old woman with a history of asthma is admitted to the emergency department. The nurse notes that the client is dyspneic, with a respiratory rate of 35 breaths/minute, nasal flaring, and use of accessory muscles. Auscultation of the lung fields reveals greatly diminished breath sounds. Based on these findings, what action should the nurse take to initiate care of the client?
A. Initiate oxygen therapy and reassess the client in 10 minutes.
B. Draw blood for an ABG analysis and send the client for a chest x-ray.
C. Encourage the client to relax and breathe slowly through the mouth
D. Administer ordered bronchodilators
Correct answer:
Administering ordered bronchodilators is the priority for this asthmatic client with dyspnea, rapid breathing (35 breaths/minute), nasal flaring, accessory muscle use, and diminished breath sounds signs of severe bronchoconstriction and impending respiratory failure. Bronchodilators (e.g., albuterol) rapidly relax airway smooth muscle, restoring airflow. Oxygen therapy alone (A) delays critical reversal of obstruction; reassessing later risks deterioration. ABGs and x-rays (B) are diagnostic, not immediate fixes, wasting time. Encouraging slow breathing (C) is futile without relieving the physical blockage. Diminished sounds suggest a silent chest,' an emergency requiring swift pharmacologic intervention, often with corticosteroids, to prevent hypoxia a cornerstone of acute asthma management in nursing practice.
A 34-year-old woman with a history of asthma is admitted to the emergency department. The nurse notes that the client is dyspneic, with a respiratory rate of 35 breaths/minute, nasal flaring, and use of accessory muscles. Auscultation of the lung fields reveals greatly diminished breath sounds. Based on these findings, what action should the nurse take to initiate care of the client?
A. Initiate oxygen therapy and reassess the client in 10 minutes.
B. Draw blood for an ABG analysis and send the client for a chest x-ray.
C. Encourage the client to relax and breathe slowly through the mouth
D. Administer ordered bronchodilators
Correct answer:
Administering ordered bronchodilators is the priority for this asthmatic client with dyspnea, rapid breathing (35 breaths/minute), nasal flaring, accessory muscle use, and diminished breath sounds signs of severe bronchoconstriction and impending respiratory failure. Bronchodilators (e.g., albuterol) rapidly relax airway smooth muscle, restoring airflow. Oxygen therapy alone (A) delays critical reversal of obstruction; reassessing later risks deterioration. ABGs and x-rays (B) are diagnostic, not immediate fixes, wasting time. Encouraging slow breathing (C) is futile without relieving the physical blockage. Diminished sounds suggest a silent chest,' an emergency requiring swift pharmacologic intervention, often with corticosteroids, to prevent hypoxia a cornerstone of acute asthma management in nursing practice.
The school nurse is talking to fifth graders about the use of tissues when blowing one's nose. Which cause of a runny nose should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A. Cells that line the breathing passages dying and releasing fluid
B. Drinking lots of water when the weather turns cold
C. Not enough coughing and sneezing to clear the nose
D. Solid viruses becoming fluid when fever melts them
Correct answer:
A runny nose during influenza occurs because cells lining the respiratory passages die due to viral infection, releasing fluid and triggering inflammation, which increases mucus production. This is a key immune response to trap and expel the virus, appropriate for fifth graders to understand as a body defense. Drinking water doesn't cause runny noses it hydrates, not floods, the nose. Insufficient coughing or sneezing might worsen congestion but isn't the root cause mucus forms regardless. Viruses don't ‘melt' into fluid; they're already microscopic and trigger fluid release via cell damage, not fever directly. The nurse teaches this cellular explanation to connect symptoms to infection, making it relatable and scientifically sound, encouraging tissue use to manage mucus and reduce germ spread among kids.
In acute diaphragmatic pleurisy involving the central part of the diaphragm, the patient is likely to complain of pain in:
A. neck and shoulder
B. lateral part of the chest between the third and sixth ribs
C. center of the chest between the second and fifth ribs
D. interscapular region
Correct answer:
Acute diaphragmatic pleurisy, inflammation of the pleural lining over the diaphragm's central portion, typically causes referred pain to the neck and shoulder (A) via the phrenic nerve (C3-C5), which innervates the diaphragm and shares dermatomes with the supraclavicular region. Lateral chest pain (B) aligns with parietal pleura irritation, not central diaphragmatic. Central chest pain (C) suggests mediastinal or cardiac issues, not diaphragmatic referral. Interscapular pain (D) lacks nerve linkage here, and right lower quadrant pain ties to abdominal pathology, not pleural. This referred pattern, distinct from local chest wall pain, is key in diagnosing diaphragmatic involvement e.g., in pneumonia or subphrenic abscess guiding imaging or intervention, a critical chest pain differentiation in clinical practice.
Vol Above FRC Which area represents the work to overcome airway resistance?
A. ABCEA
B. ABCFA
C. AECFA
D. ABCDOA
Correct answer:
In a pressure-volume loop, work to overcome airway resistance is the area during inspiration where pressure exceeds elastic recoil, typically AECFA (choice C). ABCEA (choice A) includes total inspiratory work (elastic + resistive). ABCFA (choice B) overestimates resistance by including elastic work. ABCDOA (choice D) represents expiratory work, not inspiratory resistance. OAFCDO (choice E) is unrelated. During inspiration from FRC, the curve from A (FRC) to E (peak pressure) reflects effort against resistance and elastic forces; C (end-inspiration) marks full volume. The triangle AECFA isolates resistive work, as pressure above the elastic recoil line (A to C) is due to airflow resistance. This aligns with respiratory mechanics, where resistive work depends on flow and airway caliber, making C the correct area.
In acute diaphragmatic pleurisy involving the central part of the diaphragm, the patient is likely to complain of pain in:
A. neck and shoulder
B. lateral part of the chest between the third and sixth ribs
C. center of the chest between the second and fifth ribs
D. interscapular region
Correct answer:
Acute diaphragmatic pleurisy, inflammation of the pleural lining over the diaphragm's central portion, typically causes referred pain to the neck and shoulder (A) via the phrenic nerve (C3-C5), which innervates the diaphragm and shares dermatomes with the supraclavicular region. Lateral chest pain (B) aligns with parietal pleura irritation, not central diaphragmatic. Central chest pain (C) suggests mediastinal or cardiac issues, not diaphragmatic referral. Interscapular pain (D) lacks nerve linkage here, and right lower quadrant pain ties to abdominal pathology, not pleural. This referred pattern, distinct from local chest wall pain, is key in diagnosing diaphragmatic involvement e.g., in pneumonia or subphrenic abscess guiding imaging or intervention, a critical chest pain differentiation in clinical practice.
A person breathes into and from a spirometer (volume 12 liters) containing 10% helium gas mixture. After equilibration, helium concentration of expired gas was found to be 6.67%. His ERV is 4.2 liters. What is his residual volume? (Hint: V1C1=V2C2)
A. 1000 ml
B. 1200 ml
C. 1800 ml
D. 1500 ml
Correct answer:
Residual volume (RV) is the air left after maximal expiration, not measurable by spirometry but calculable via helium dilution. Here, a 12 L spirometer with 10% helium (C1 = 0.1) equilibrates with lung volume (initially FRC). Post-equilibration, expired gas is 6.67% helium (C2 = 0.0667). Using V1C1 = V2C2 (helium conservation), V1 = 12 L, C1 = 0.1, C2 = 0.0667: 12 × 0.1 = V2 × 0.0667, so 1.2 = V2 × 0.0667, V2 = 1.2 / 0.0667 ≈ 18 L. V2 is total gas volume (spirometer + FRC). FRC = V2 - V1 = 18 - 12 = 6 L. FRC = ERV + RV, and ERV = 4.2 L, so RV = FRC - ERV = 6 - 4.2 = 1.8 L = 1800 ml. This assumes equilibration at FRC (post-normal expiration), common in such problems. The 1800 ml matches helium dilution principles, where dilution reflects unexpired lung volume, confirming RV amidst the options.
A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to describe the route of transmission of tuberculosis. The instructor concludes that the student understands this information if the student states that tuberculosis is transmitted by:
A. Hand to mouth
B. The airborne route
C. The fecal-oral route
D. Blood and body fluids
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: The airborne route. Tuberculosis is primarily transmitted through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes, releasing droplets containing the TB bacteria. These droplets can be inhaled by others, leading to the transmission of the disease. This mode of transmission is supported by scientific evidence and is well-documented in medical literature.
Choice A (Hand to mouth) is incorrect because TB is not typically transmitted through direct contact with contaminated hands to mouth. Choice C (The fecal-oral route) is incorrect as TB is not transmitted through fecal-oral route but primarily through respiratory droplets. Choice D (Blood and body fluids) is incorrect as TB is not commonly transmitted through blood or body fluids, but rather through respiratory droplets in the air.
Coxiella burnetii causes Q fever, a zoonotic disease often contracted from livestock via inhalation of aerosols. It presents with fever, pneumonia, or hepatitis, differing from tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis), a chronic lung infection with granulomas; diphtheria (Corynebacterium diphtheriae), marked by throat pseudomembranes; and walking pneumonia (typically Mycoplasma pneumoniae), a milder lung infection. C. burnetii's intracellular nature and resilience in the environment distinguish Q fever, which lacks the exotoxin-driven pathology of diphtheria or tuberculosis's slow progression. Accurate identification guides treatment antibiotics like doxycycline for Q fever versus antitoxins or long-term regimens for others emphasizing the need to recognize causative agents in respiratory illness management.
Coxiella burnetii causes Q fever, a zoonotic disease often contracted from livestock via inhalation of aerosols. It presents with fever, pneumonia, or hepatitis, differing from tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis), a chronic lung infection with granulomas; diphtheria (Corynebacterium diphtheriae), marked by throat pseudomembranes; and walking pneumonia (typically Mycoplasma pneumoniae), a milder lung infection. C. burnetii's intracellular nature and resilience in the environment distinguish Q fever, which lacks the exotoxin-driven pathology of diphtheria or tuberculosis's slow progression. Accurate identification guides treatment antibiotics like doxycycline for Q fever versus antitoxins or long-term regimens for others emphasizing the need to recognize causative agents in respiratory illness management.
LPN exams respiratory practice questions, set 16 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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