You use fluids, electrolytes, and kidney cues to decide what to hold, give, or report. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five renal and urinary questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which of the following statements regarding injury to the central nervous system in children is TRUE?
A. Children suffer spinal cord injury without x-ray abnormality more commonly than adults.
B. An infant with a traumatic brain injury may become hypotensive from cerebral edem
C. Initial therapy for the child with traumatic brain injury includes the administration of methylprednisolone intravenously.
D. Children have more focal mass lesions as a result of traumatic brain injury when compared to adults.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Children suffer spinal cord injury without x-ray abnormality more commonly than adults.
Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Children suffer spinal cord injury without x-ray abnormality more commonly than adults. This statement is true because children's spinal cords are more flexible and elastic, making them less likely to show bony abnormalities on x-rays even if there is an injury. This phenomenon is known as SCIWORA (spinal cord injury without radiographic abnormality) and is more common in children due to their unique anatomical characteristics.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: An infant with a traumatic brain injury may become hypotensive from cerebral edema - This statement is incorrect because hypotension is not a common consequence of cerebral edema in traumatic brain injury.
C: Initial therapy for the child with traumatic brain injury includes the administration of methylprednisolone intravenously - This statement is incorrect as the use of methylprednisolone in traumatic brain injury is controversial and not considered standard therapy.
D: Children have more focal mass lesions as a result of traumatic brain injury
Question 2
A nurse is caring for a 73-year-old patient with a renal dysfunction. When reviewing laboratory results for urethral obstruction related to prostatic enlargement. this patient, the nurse interprets the presence of which When planning this patients care, the nurse should be substances in the urine as most suggestive of aware of the consequent risk of what complication?
A. Urinary tract infection
B. Potassium and sodium
C. Enuresis
D. Bicarbonate and urea
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Urinary tract infection
The correct answer is A: Urinary tract infection. In patients with urethral obstruction, the presence of substances in the urine such as bacteria, leukocytes, and nitrites indicates a high likelihood of urinary tract infection. The obstruction can lead to stasis of urine, providing an ideal environment for bacterial growth. This increases the risk of infection spreading to the kidneys, causing pyelonephritis or sepsis. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in monitoring for signs of infection and promptly initiate appropriate treatment to prevent complications.
Summary:
B: Potassium and sodium - While electrolyte imbalance can occur in renal dysfunction, it is not directly related to urethral obstruction or suggestive of a urinary tract infection.
C: Enuresis - Enuresis refers to involuntary urination, which is not directly related to the presence of substances in the urine or indicative of urinary tract infection.
D: Bicarbonate and urea - While these substances are relevant in assessing renal function, their
Question 3
A woman is in the clinic for an annual gynecologic examination. The nurse should plan to begin the interview with the:
A. Menstrual history, because it is generally nonthreatening.
B. Obstetric history, because it includes the most important information.
C. Urinary system history, because problems may develop in this area as well.
D. Sexual history, because discussing it first will build rapport.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Menstrual history, because it is generally nonthreatening.
The correct answer is A: Menstrual history, because it is generally nonthreatening. Starting with the menstrual history is appropriate as it is a common and noninvasive topic that can help build rapport and make the patient feel more comfortable. It also provides important insights into the patient's overall health and reproductive system. By addressing this topic first, the nurse can establish a foundation for a more in-depth discussion of other aspects of the patient's gynecologic health.
Summary of other choices:
B: Obstetric history is not the most appropriate to start with as it may not be relevant for all patients during an annual gynecologic examination.
C: Urinary system history may not be the most relevant starting point for a routine gynecologic exam and may not be as nonthreatening as discussing menstrual history.
D: Sexual history, while important, may be more sensitive and personal for some patients, making it less suitable as an initial topic for building rapport and establishing trust.
Question 4
What is the most appropriate intervention for Susan who is eating less protein than prescribed?
A. Praise her for cutting back even further than instructed on protein
B. Suggest that if she eats less protein she should increase carbohydrates
C. Recommend eating the amount of protein prescribed
D. Refer her to the dietician
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Recommend eating the amount of protein prescribed
The correct answer is C: Recommend eating the amount of protein prescribed. This is the most appropriate intervention because it aligns with the prescribed dietary requirements for Susan's health. By following the prescribed protein intake, Susan can ensure she is meeting her nutritional needs and promoting optimal health.
Explanation:
1. A (Praise her for cutting back even further than instructed on protein): This choice is incorrect as it encourages behavior that goes against the prescribed dietary recommendation, which could negatively impact Susan's health.
2. B (Suggest that if she eats less protein she should increase carbohydrates): This choice is incorrect as it does not address the issue of inadequate protein intake and may lead to an imbalance in her macronutrient intake.
3. D (Refer her to the dietician): While referring her to a dietician may be beneficial for further guidance, it does not directly address the immediate issue of Susan not consuming the prescribed amount of protein.
Question 5
A female patient with a UTI has a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection related to lack of knowledge regarding prevention of recurrence. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan instructions for this patient?
A. Empty the bladder at least 4 times a day.
B. Drink at least 2 quarts of water every day.
C. Wait to urinate until the urge is very intense.
D. Clean the urinary meatus with an antiinfective agent after voiding.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Drink at least 2 quarts of water every day.
The correct answer is B: Drink at least 2 quarts of water every day. This answer is correct because adequate hydration helps to flush out bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of UTI recurrence. Drinking plenty of water promotes frequent urination, which helps to prevent bacteria from multiplying in the bladder.
Choice A is incorrect because the frequency of emptying the bladder does not directly impact the prevention of UTI recurrence. Choice C is incorrect as delaying urination can lead to the retention of urine, which may increase the risk of infection. Choice D is incorrect because cleaning the urinary meatus with an antiinfective agent after voiding is not recommended as it can disrupt the natural flora and irritate the area, potentially leading to more infections.
In summary, maintaining adequate hydration by drinking at least 2 quarts of water daily is the most effective method to prevent UTI recurrence, while the other choices are less relevant or potentially harmful.
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Question 6
Which of the following drug adverse reactions precludes a patient from being * given the same drug in the future?
A. GI upset from Clarithromycin
B. Skin Rash from Ampicillin
C. Steven-Johnson syndrome from Trimetoprim/Sulfamethoxazole
D. Clostridium decile superinfection from Ooxacin
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Steven-Johnson syndrome from Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole. Steven-Johnson syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening adverse reaction characterized by rash, blistering, and mucosal involvement. Once a patient experiences Steven-Johnson syndrome from a specific drug like Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole, they should never be given that drug again due to the high risk of recurrence and the severity of the reaction. This is known as a contraindication, making it unsafe to administer the drug in the future.
A, B, and D are incorrect because GI upset from Clarithromycin, skin rash from Ampicillin, and Clostridium difficile superinfection from Ciprofloxacin, while unpleasant, are not typically considered contraindications for future use of the same drug. These adverse reactions can often be managed with dose adjustments, alternative medications, or supportive care without ruling out the drug entirely
When the nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient, which action is correct?
A. Auscultating for the presence of a bruit over the scrotum
B. Palpating for the vertical chain of lymph nodes along the groin, inferior to the inguinal ligament
C. Palpating the inguinal canal only if a bulge is present in the inguinal region during inspection
D. Having the patient shift his weight onto the left (unexamine
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Palpating for the vertical chain of lymph nodes along the groin, inferior to the inguinal ligament. This is the correct action during a male genital examination as it helps assess for any abnormalities or signs of infection in the lymphatic system. Palpating the lymph nodes allows the nurse to identify any swelling, tenderness, or enlargement which could indicate underlying health issues. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Auscultating for a bruit over the scrotum is not a standard practice during a genital examination and is not relevant to assessing male genital health.
C: Palpating the inguinal canal only if a bulge is present is incorrect as palpating the inguinal canal should be done regardless of the presence of a bulge to check for hernias.
D: Having the patient shift his weight is not a standard procedure during a genital examination and is not relevant to assessing male genital health.
The main reason for the use of combination therapy in the drug treatment of * Tuberculosis is:
A. Reduce the incidence of side effects
B. Delay or prevent the emergence of resistance
C. Synergistically increase antimycobacterial activity
D. Provide prophylaxis against other bacterial infections
Correct answer:
The main reason for using combination therapy in tuberculosis treatment is to delay or prevent the emergence of resistance. By using multiple drugs that target different aspects of the bacteria's life cycle, it becomes harder for the bacteria to develop resistance to all drugs simultaneously. This helps to ensure that the treatment remains effective in the long term.
Explanation for other choices:
A: While combination therapy can sometimes help reduce side effects by using lower doses of each drug, the primary reason for using it in tuberculosis treatment is to prevent resistance, not side effects.
C: While combination therapy can increase antimycobacterial activity, the main goal is to prevent resistance, not to enhance the drugs' effects.
D: Providing prophylaxis against other bacterial infections is not the main reason for using combination therapy in tuberculosis treatment; the focus is on preventing resistance.
A 25 year old patient is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection. Which of the following drug would be most appropriate to prescribe in treating this patient’s illness?
A. Zanamivir
B. Lamivudine
C. Valacyclovir
D. Cidofovir
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Valacyclovir. Valacyclovir is an antiviral medication commonly used to treat herpes simplex virus infections. It is a prodrug of acyclovir, which inhibits viral replication by targeting the viral DNA polymerase enzyme. Valacyclovir is effective in reducing the severity and duration of genital herpes outbreaks.
A: Zanamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat and prevent influenza virus infections, not herpes simplex virus infections.
B: Lamivudine is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV and hepatitis B infections, not herpes simplex virus infections.
D: Cidofovir is an antiviral medication used to treat cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections, not herpes simplex virus infections.
In summary, Valacyclovir is the most appropriate choice for treating genital herpes simplex virus infection due to its effectiveness in inhibiting viral replication and reducing the severity of outbreaks.
What surgical treatment options are available for the treatment of calculi that are large or complicated by obstruction, ongoing UTI, kidney damage, or constant bleeding?
A. Describe the treatment options for renal cancer.
B. What high priority nursing diagnoses and interventions would you identify for a client with chronic glomerulonephritis?
C. What are the options for vascular access with hemodialysis?
D. Discard the test and ask the client to recollect urine afresh.
Correct answer:
Rationale for Correct Answer (D):
1. Large or complicated calculi can lead to serious complications like kidney damage or constant bleeding.
2. Asking the client to recollect urine afresh allows for accurate testing to guide appropriate treatment.
3. Surgical treatments may be necessary but are not the immediate priority in this scenario.
4. Urgent intervention is needed to address the complications associated with the calculi.
5. Proper diagnosis and management of the underlying issues are crucial before considering surgical options.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Describing treatment options for renal cancer is irrelevant to the question about calculi management.
B: High priority nursing diagnoses for chronic glomerulonephritis do not address the immediate issue of large or complicated calculi.
C: Options for vascular access with hemodialysis are unrelated to the surgical treatment of calculi complications.
What is one important step that the nursing assistant should take when collecting a sputum specimen?
A. Have the resident eat dinner prior to the sputum collection
B. Ask the resident to rinse with mouthwash before the collection
C. Have the resident rinse mouth with water before the collection
D. Collect the specimen at night just before the resident goes to bed
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Have the resident rinse mouth with water before the collection. This step helps to ensure that the sputum sample collected is not contaminated with food particles or debris from the mouth, providing a more accurate representation of the respiratory secretions. Rinsing with water helps to clear the mouth and throat of any potential contaminants, making the collection process more effective.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Having the resident eat dinner prior to the sputum collection can introduce food particles into the sample, leading to contamination and inaccurate results.
B: Asking the resident to rinse with mouthwash before the collection can introduce chemicals that may interfere with the accuracy of the test results.
D: Collecting the specimen at night just before the resident goes to bed does not address the need to clear the mouth of potential contaminants before the collection.
Glomerulonephritis is characterized by glomerular damage caused by
A. growth of microorganisms in the glomeruli.
B. release of bacterial substances toxic to the glomeruli.
C. accumulation of immune complexes in the glomeruli.
D. hemolysis of red blood cells circulating in the glomeruli.
Correct answer:
Rationale for Choice C:
1. Glomerulonephritis is an immune-mediated condition where the accumulation of immune complexes in the glomeruli triggers inflammation and damages the kidney.
2. Immune complexes can form due to various reasons like infections or autoimmune disorders, leading to glomerular injury.
3. This immune complex deposition activates the complement system and attracts inflammatory cells, causing further damage to the glomeruli.
Summary of Other Choices:
A. Growth of microorganisms in the glomeruli is not a characteristic feature of glomerulonephritis, as it is primarily an immune-mediated condition.
B. The release of bacterial substances toxic to the glomeruli is not the primary mechanism of injury in glomerulonephritis.
D. Hemolysis of red blood cells circulating in the glomeruli is not a direct cause of glomerulonephritis; it is more characteristic of conditions like hemolytic uremic syndrome.
During a health history, a 22-year-old woman asks, 'Can I get that vaccine for human papilloma virus (HPV)? I have genital warts and I'd like them to go away! What is the nurse's best response?'
A. The HPV vaccine is for girls and women ages 9 to 26 years, so we can start that today.
B. This vaccine is only for girls who have not yet started to become sexually active.
C. Let's check with the physician to see if you are a candidate for this vaccine.
D. The vaccine cannot protect you if you already have an HPV infection.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because the HPV vaccine is prophylactic and does not treat existing HPV infections. The primary purpose of the vaccine is to prevent future HPV infections, not to cure current ones. Therefore, administering the vaccine to someone who already has an HPV infection would not provide any benefit in treating the existing infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the fact that the vaccine cannot treat an existing HPV infection. Choice A is incorrect because the age range for the HPV vaccine includes individuals up to 26 years old, but it does not address the issue of existing infection. Choice B is incorrect because the vaccine is recommended for both sexually active and non-sexually active individuals to prevent future infections. Choice C is incorrect because checking with the physician does not change the fact that the vaccine cannot treat an existing HPV infection.
A patient has been experiencing vaginal bleeding and cramping, which the nurse suspects could be an early sign of a miscarriage. Which of the following should the nurse assess for during this examination?
A. Hyperthyroidism.
B. High blood pressure.
C. Weight loss and fatigue.
D. Changes in breast size or tenderness.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Weight loss and fatigue. In the context of vaginal bleeding and cramping, weight loss and fatigue are concerning signs that may indicate a potential miscarriage. Weight loss could be due to decreased appetite or nutritional deficiencies associated with the stress of a miscarriage. Fatigue may result from hormonal changes and emotional distress. Assessing for weight loss and fatigue helps the nurse monitor the patient's overall well-being and provide appropriate support.
Choice A (Hyperthyroidism) is incorrect as it is not directly related to the symptoms of vaginal bleeding and cramping suggestive of a possible miscarriage.
Choice B (High blood pressure) is also incorrect as it is not typically associated with early signs of a miscarriage.
Choice D (Changes in breast size or tenderness) is incorrect as these symptoms are more commonly related to pregnancy rather than miscarriage.
The nurse is aware of which statement to be true regarding the incidence of testicular cancer?
A. Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men aged 30 to 50 years.
B. The early symptoms of testicular cancer are pain and induration.
C. Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer.
D. The cure rate for testicular cancer is low.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer. This is because cryptorchidism, which is the condition of undescended testicles, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer. When the testicles do not descend properly, there is an increased likelihood of cancer development. This statement is true as individuals with cryptorchidism have a higher risk of testicular cancer compared to those without this condition.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Testicular cancer is not the most common cancer in men aged 30 to 50 years. Prostate cancer is more common in this age group.
B: The early symptoms of testicular cancer are not pain and induration. Common symptoms include painless testicular swelling or a lump.
D: The cure rate for testicular cancer is actually high, especially when detected early. This statement is incorrect.
LPN exams renal and urinary practice questions for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.