LPN exams renal and urinary practice questions, set 3
LPN exams · renal and urinary
LPN exams renal and urinary practice questionsset 3
You use fluids, electrolytes, and kidney cues to decide what to hold, give, or report. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five renal and urinary questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which statement best describes Zidovudine: *
A. Zidovudine in combination with other antiretrovirals is an alternative initial treatment for HIV infection.
B. Zidovudine is also used to prevent transmission of HIV from the mother to her
C. Zidovudine is converted by cellular enzymes to an active form, zidovudine diphosphate, which prevents viral DNA from replicating.
D. Peripheral neuropathy is a specic adverse reaction to Zidovudine
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Zidovudine is converted by cellular enzymes to an active form, zidovudine diphosphate, which prevents viral DNA from replicating.
Rationale for Correct Answer (C):
1. Zidovudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) used in the treatment of HIV.
2. Zidovudine is indeed converted by cellular enzymes to its active form, zidovudine diphosphate.
3. Zidovudine diphosphate inhibits the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing viral DNA replication in HIV-infected cells.
4. This mechanism of action is crucial in reducing viral load and slowing disease progression in HIV patients.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Incorrect. While Zidovudine is used in combination therapy for HIV, it is not typically an alternative initial treatment.
B: Incorrect. Zidovudine can be used to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV, but it is not its primary indication.
D: Incorrect. Peripheral neuropathy is not a specific adverse reaction to Zidovudine; rather, it is more commonly associated with
Question 2
Which statement best describes Zidovudine:
A. Zidovudine in combination with other antiretrovirals is an alternative initial treatment for HIV infection
B. Zidovudine is also used to prevent transmission of HIV from the mother to her fetus and to treat AIDS-related dementia
C. Peripheral neuropathy is a specific adverse reaction to Zidovudine
D. Zidovudine is converted by cellular enzymes to an active form
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: Z
The correct answer is D: Zidovudine is converted by cellular enzymes to an active form (zidovudine diphosphate). Zidovudine itself is a prodrug that needs to be metabolized by cellular enzymes to its active form, zidovudine diphosphate, which inhibits HIV replication by acting as a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. This active form is essential for its antiretroviral activity.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Zidovudine in combination with other antiretrovirals is an alternative initial treatment for HIV infection - This is incorrect because zidovudine is commonly used in combination with other antiretrovirals as a first-line treatment for HIV infection, not as an alternative treatment.
B: Zidovudine is also used to prevent transmission of HIV from the mother to her fetus and to treat AIDS-related dementia - This is incorrect because zidovudine is primarily used in
Question 3
When the nurse is interviewing a preadolescent girl, which opening question would be least threatening?
A. Do you have any questions about growing up?
B. What has your mother told you about growing up?
C. When did you notice that your body was changing?
D. I remember being very scared when I got my period. How do you think you'll feel?
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — When did you notice that your body was changing?
Correct Answer: C - "When did you notice that your body was changing?"
Rationale:
1. This question is open-ended and focuses on the preadolescent girl's personal experience, allowing her to share information at her comfort level.
2. It avoids assumptions and allows the girl to express herself without feeling pressured.
3. By asking about her own observations, it encourages self-reflection and empowers her to communicate about her body changes.
Summary:
A - Option A might indirectly suggest that the girl should have questions about growing up, potentially creating pressure.
B - Option B assumes the mother's role as the primary source of information, potentially overlooking the girl's own experiences.
D - Option D introduces the tutor's personal experience, which may lead the girl to compare her feelings to the tutor's, potentially causing unnecessary anxiety.
Question 4
The external male genital structures include the:
A. Testis.
B. Scrotum.
C. Epididymis.
D. Vas deferens.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Scrotum.
The correct answer is B: Scrotum. The scrotum is a pouch of skin and muscle that houses and protects the testes, which are the actual male reproductive glands responsible for producing sperm. The scrotum also helps regulate the temperature of the testes to ensure optimal sperm production.
A: Testis - While the testis is an external male genital structure, it is not the correct answer in this context as the question specifically asks for external structures.
C: Epididymis - The epididymis is a coiled tube located on the back of each testicle where sperm mature and are stored. It is an internal structure and not considered part of the external genital structures.
D: Vas deferens - The vas deferens is a tube that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra during ejaculation. It is also an internal structure and not part of the external genital structures.
Question 5
Your adult patient is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia with a heart rate of 40 bpm. Once on the monitor, it reveals the patient has a complete third-degree atrioventricular block and is found to be hypotensive as well. Which of the following medications should be avoided, if possible?
A. Epinephrine
B. Dopamine
C. Dobutamine
D. Atropine
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Atropine
The correct answer is D: Atropine. In a patient with symptomatic bradycardia due to complete third-degree AV block, atropine should be avoided if possible because it works by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system, potentially worsening the AV block. The first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia with hypotension in this scenario is transcutaneous pacing or external temporary pacing. If atropine is ineffective or contraindicated, other options like dopamine, dobutamine, or epinephrine may be considered to support blood pressure until more definitive treatment can be initiated. Dopamine and dobutamine can help increase heart rate and improve cardiac output, while epinephrine can provide inotropic and chronotropic support. However, these medications should be used cautiously and in consultation with a specialist due to the risk of exacerbating the AV block.
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Question 6
Which of the following anthelmintic acts as a cholinergic agonist in the nematodes and causes spastic paralysis of the worms?
A. Piperazine
B. Pyrantel pamoate
C. Mebendazole
D. Albendazole
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for why Pyrantel pamoate (choice B) is the correct answer:
1. Pyrantel pamoate is a cholinergic agonist that acts on nematodes by stimulating nicotinic receptors, leading to spastic paralysis of the worms.
2. Its mechanism of action involves depolarizing the neuromuscular junction, causing sustained muscle contraction in the parasites.
3. This spastic paralysis makes the worms lose their ability to maintain attachment to the host's intestine, facilitating their expulsion from the body.
4. Piperazine (choice A) works by blocking the response of the worm's muscle cells to acetylcholine, causing flaccid paralysis.
5. Mebendazole (choice C) and Albendazole (choice D) are benzimidazole anthelmintics that inhibit microtubule formation, leading to impaired glucose uptake and energy depletion in the parasites, not acting as cholinergic agonists.
One of the primary functions of the kidney is to filter blood in order to remove substances that have no useful function in the body. Which of the following is the correct path of blood from the abdominal aorta to the inferior vena cava (IVC)?
The correct path of blood flow in the kidney is from the abdominal aorta to the renal arteries, then to the segmental arteries, followed by interlobar arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobular arteries, afferent arteries, glomerulus, efferent arteries, peritubular capillaries, interlobular veins, arcuate veins, interlobar veins, renal veins, and finally to the inferior vena cava. Choice C accurately follows this sequential flow of blood, making it the correct answer.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
- Choice A has the incorrect sequence of interlobar and interlobular arteries, which disrupts the correct flow.
- Choice B also has an incorrect sequence of interlobar and interlobular arteries, leading to an inaccurate path.
- Choice D has the interlobar and interlobular arteries in the wrong order, deviating from the correct blood flow pathway.
For which patient with incontinence would a bladder-training program be an appropriate intervention?
A. The patient with functional incontinence due to mental status changes
B. The patient with stress incontinence due to weakened bladder neck support
C. The patient with urge incontinence and abnormal detrusor muscle contractions
D. The patient with transient incontinence due to inability to get to toileting facilities
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: the patient with urge incontinence and abnormal detrusor muscle contractions. Bladder training is an appropriate intervention for this patient because it aims to increase the bladder capacity and decrease the frequency of abnormal contractions. The program involves scheduled voiding and delaying urination to gradually increase the time between bathroom visits. This helps to retrain the bladder muscles and improve control over urination.
A: Functional incontinence due to mental status changes is not typically addressed through bladder training.
B: Stress incontinence due to weakened bladder neck support is better treated with pelvic floor exercises and lifestyle modifications.
D: Transient incontinence due to inability to get to toileting facilities requires environmental modifications and timed toileting, not bladder training.
Which is the most common from of acute glomerulonephritis?
A. Post streptococcal.
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
D. Goodpasture's syndrome
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis. It is the most common form of acute glomerulonephritis caused by a previous streptococcal infection. This type of glomerulonephritis typically occurs in children and young adults. The immune response to the streptococcal infection leads to the deposition of immune complexes in the glomeruli, causing inflammation and kidney damage.
Choice B (IgA nephropathy) is a chronic form of glomerulonephritis characterized by the deposition of IgA immune complexes in the glomeruli. Choice C (Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis) is a severe form of glomerulonephritis characterized by rapid loss of kidney function. Choice D (Goodpasture's syndrome) is a rare autoimmune disease affecting the lungs and kidneys, characterized by the production of antibodies against the basement membrane of the glomeruli.
An 11-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical examination. The nurse notices that she has begun to develop breasts, and during the conversation the girl reveals that she is worried about her development. The nurse should use which of these techniques to best assist the young girl in understanding the expected sequence for development? The nurse should:
A. Use the Tanner scale on the five stages of sexual development.
B. Describe her development and compare it with that of other girls her age.
C. Use the Jacobsen table on expected development on the basis of height and weight data.
D. Reassure her that her development is within normal limits and tell her not to worry about the next step.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Use the Tanner scale on the five stages of sexual development. The Tanner scale is a standardized tool used to assess the stages of sexual development in children and adolescents. By using this scale, the nurse can provide the girl with a clear and objective understanding of her current stage of development and what to expect in the future. This approach helps the young girl feel informed and reassured about the normal process of puberty.
Choice B is incorrect because comparing the girl's development with other girls her age may lead to unnecessary comparisons and anxiety. Choice C is incorrect as the Jacobsen table based on height and weight data is not relevant for assessing sexual development. Choice D is incorrect as simply reassuring the girl without providing detailed information may not address her concerns effectively.
The patient has a thoracic spinal cord lesion and incontinence that occurs equally during the day and night. What type of incontinence is this patient experiencing?
A. Reflex incontinence
B. Overflow incontinence
C. Functional incontinence
D. Incontinence after trauma
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Reflex incontinence. This type of incontinence occurs due to a lack of voluntary control over the bladder, usually resulting from a spinal cord lesion. In this case, the thoracic spinal cord lesion is causing the incontinence. The fact that incontinence occurs equally during the day and night suggests a lack of awareness or sensation of bladder fullness, characteristic of reflex incontinence.
Summary of other choices:
B: Overflow incontinence is due to bladder overdistension and is commonly associated with conditions like BPH or spinal cord injuries at the sacral level.
C: Functional incontinence is when a person is unable to reach the toilet in time due to physical or cognitive impairments.
D: Incontinence after trauma is a broad term and does not specifically address the pattern of incontinence described in the question.
A 15-year-old boy is seen in the clinic for complaints of “dull pain and pulling†in the scrotal area. On examination, the nurse palpates a soft, irregular mass posterior to and above the testis on the left. This mass collapses when the patient is supine and refills when he is upright. This description is consistent with:
A. Epididymitis.
B. Spermatocele.
C. Testicular torsion.
D. Varicocele.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Varicocele. Varicocele is a dilatation of the pampiniform plexus of veins within the scrotum. In this case, the soft, irregular mass that collapses when the patient is supine and refills when he is upright is characteristic of a varicocele due to the pooling of blood causing the mass to vary in size with position changes.
A: Epididymitis typically presents with redness, warmth, and tenderness in the epididymis, not a soft, irregular mass.
B: Spermatocele is a cystic mass that is typically painless and does not change in size with position changes.
C: Testicular torsion presents with severe, sudden onset of testicular pain, swelling, and discoloration, not a soft, irregular mass that changes with position.
In summary, the description of a soft, irregular mass that changes with position is consistent with a varicocele,
Which of the following new drug is indicated in managing SIADH , non - * peptide and competitive antagonist of ADH 's water sparing effects in the collecting ducts of nephron?
A. Mannitol
B. Bumetanide
C. Spironolactone
D. Conivaptan
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Conivaptan. Conivaptan is a non-peptide competitive antagonist of ADH, specifically targeting the V2 receptors in the collecting ducts of the nephron. This mechanism of action inhibits ADH's water-sparing effects, making it an effective treatment for SIADH.
A: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used for conditions like cerebral edema and acute kidney injury, not specifically for SIADH.
B: Bumetanide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and hypertension, not for managing SIADH.
C: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and hypertension, not for treating SIADH.
In summary, Conivaptan is the correct choice for managing SIADH due to its specific mechanism of action as a competitive antagonist of ADH in the collecting ducts, while the other options are
A 22-year-old woman with a history of chronic pelvic pain is being examined. The nurse suspects endometriosis. Which of the following is the most common symptom of endometriosis?
A. Pain during menstruation.
B. Pelvic pain that worsens during menstruation.
C. Pain during ovulation.
D. Heavy bleeding during menstruation.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Pelvic pain that worsens during menstruation. This is because endometriosis is characterized by the presence of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus, leading to inflammation and pain in the pelvic region. The pain typically worsens during menstruation due to the shedding of this tissue, causing irritation and further inflammation.
A: Pain during menstruation is a common symptom, but what distinguishes endometriosis is the worsening of pain during menstruation.
C: Pain during ovulation is not a typical symptom of endometriosis. While some individuals may experience pain during ovulation, it is not the most common symptom.
D: Heavy bleeding during menstruation can occur in endometriosis, but it is not the most common symptom. Pelvic pain that worsens during menstruation is the hallmark symptom of endometriosis.
A guideline for bowel retraining that the nursing assistant should follow is to
A. Offer praise sparingly and restrict fluids after dinner
B. Observe skin closely for changes and answer call lights promptly
C. Avoid using gloves and offer foods not included in the diet order
D. Ignore episodes of incontinence and push independent perineal care
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because observing skin closely for changes and answering call lights promptly are essential aspects of bowel retraining. By observing the skin, the nursing assistant can detect any signs of skin breakdown due to incontinence and take necessary actions. Answering call lights promptly ensures timely assistance with toileting needs, which is crucial for successful bowel retraining.
Choice A is incorrect as offering praise sparingly and restricting fluids after dinner are not relevant to bowel retraining. Choice C is incorrect as using gloves is necessary for hygiene, and offering foods not included in the diet order can disrupt the retraining process. Choice D is incorrect as ignoring episodes of incontinence and pushing independent perineal care can hinder the retraining progress and potentially lead to complications.
LPN exams renal and urinary practice questions, set 3 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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