You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A nurse manager notices tension between two staff nurses over scheduling preferences. What is the most effective first step to resolve this conflict?
A. Schedule a mandatory meeting to dictate a new schedule
B. Ask each nurse to submit their preferred schedule in writing
C. Facilitate a discussion between the two nurses to understand their needs
D. Assign a third nurse to mediate the dispute
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Facilitate a discussion between the two nurses to understand their needs
The correct answer is C: Facilitate a discussion between the two nurses to understand their needs. This is the most effective first step to resolve the conflict as it promotes open communication and allows both nurses to express their concerns and preferences. By understanding their needs, the nurse manager can work towards finding a mutually agreeable solution.
Choice A is incorrect because dictating a new schedule without addressing the underlying issues may lead to further resentment. Choice B is not as effective as it does not address the interpersonal conflict between the two nurses. Choice D is not ideal as involving a third party before allowing the nurses to communicate may escalate the conflict. In summary, choice C is the best option as it promotes dialogue and understanding to find a collaborative solution.
Question 2
A nurse working in a community setting is focusing on illness prevention for a group of clients who have risk factors for varying chronic illnesses. Which nursing action reflects primary prevention for this group?
A. Screening clients for high cholesterol
B. Referring clients to a nutritionist
C. Educating clients about the benefits of exercise
D. Planning care for clients with hypertension
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Educating clients about the benefits of exercise
Primary prevention stops illness before it begins, ideal for clients with risk factors but no disease. Educating about exercise benefits like reducing heart disease odds promotes healthy habits, targeting risks such as obesity or inactivity common across chronic conditions. Screening for cholesterol is secondary, detecting issues, not preventing them. Referring to a nutritionist could be primary but often follows identified needs, leaning tertiary. Planning care for hypertension is tertiary, managing a diagnosis. Exercise education empowers this group proactively evidence shows it cuts diabetes and cardiovascular risk fitting community nursing's preventive focus. This action builds resilience, aligning with nursing's goal to avert chronic illness onset through accessible, universal lifestyle changes, not reactive care.
Question 3
A 63-year-old nurse comes to your office, upset because she has found an enlarged lymph node under her right arm. She states she found it last week while taking a shower. She isn't sure if she has any breast lumps because she doesn't know how to do self-exams. She states her last mammogram was 5 years ago and it was normal. Her past medical history is significant for high blood pressure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. She quit smoking 2 years ago after a 55-packs/year history. She denies using any illegal drugs and drinks alcohol rarely. Her mother died of a heart attack and her father died of a stroke. She has no children. On examination you see an older female appearing her stated age. On visual inspection of her right axilla you see nothing unusual. Palpating this area, you feel a 2-cm hard, fixed lymph node. She denies any tenderness. Visualization of both breasts is normal. Palpation of her left axilla and breast is unremarkable. On palpation of her right breast you feel a nontender 1-cm lump in the tail of Spence. What disorder of the axilla is most likely responsible for her symptoms?
A. Breast cancer
B. Lymphadenopathy of infectious origin
C. Hidradenitis suppurativa
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Breast cancer
The correct answer is A: Breast cancer. The presence of an enlarged, hard, fixed lymph node in the right axilla, along with a nontender lump in the tail of Spence (an area of the breast where breast cancer commonly occurs), strongly suggests breast cancer as the most likely cause. The patient's age, gender, history of smoking, and lack of breast self-exams increase her risk for breast cancer. The absence of tenderness in the lymph node also raises suspicion. Other choices are less likely: B (lymphadenopathy of infectious origin) would typically present with other symptoms like fever or localized infection; C (hidradenitis suppurativa) is a chronic skin condition affecting the sweat glands, not typically presenting with an enlarged lymph node. The patient's history and examination findings align more with breast cancer.
Question 4
Which statement best describes time management strategies applied to the role of a nurse manager?
A. Schedule staff efficiently to cover the needs of the managed unit
B. Assume a fair share of direct client care to set an example
C. Set daily goals with a prioritization of tasks
D. Delegate tasks to reduce workload associated with direct care and meetings
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Set daily goals with a prioritization of tasks
Setting daily goals and prioritizing tasks is crucial for effective time management as a nurse manager. This approach helps in organizing and focusing on the most important responsibilities, ensuring that key tasks are completed efficiently. Choice A is incorrect as scheduling staff efficiently, while important, is more related to staffing management than direct time management strategies. Choice B is incorrect as assuming direct client care does not necessarily align with effective time management strategies for a nurse manager, as their primary role is overseeing and coordinating care. Choice D, while delegation is a key aspect of time management, the emphasis on reducing workload specifically associated with direct care and meetings may not always be the primary focus of a nurse manager's time management strategies.
Question 5
A client with chronic bronchitis is prescribed oxygen therapy. What is the primary goal of this treatment?
A. To reduce carbon dioxide levels in the blood.
B. To improve oxygen delivery to tissues.
C. To eliminate mucus from the airways.
D. To prevent the development of pneumonia.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — To improve oxygen delivery to tissues.
The primary goal of oxygen therapy for a client with chronic bronchitis is to improve oxygen delivery to tissues. In chronic bronchitis, the airways are inflamed and narrowed, leading to decreased oxygen exchange. Providing supplemental oxygen helps increase oxygen levels in the blood, improving oxygen delivery to tissues throughout the body. This can alleviate symptoms such as shortness of breath and fatigue.
Choice A is incorrect because oxygen therapy primarily focuses on increasing oxygen levels, not reducing carbon dioxide levels. Choice C is incorrect as oxygen therapy does not directly address mucus production. Choice D is incorrect as the goal of oxygen therapy is not specifically to prevent pneumonia, although adequate oxygenation can support overall respiratory health and reduce the risk of complications.
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Question 6
A continuous infusion of nitroglycerin is prescribed for an adult male admitted with an acute myocardial infarction. The client is experiencing active chest pain that he describes as 8 out of 10. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
A. Administer the infusion via an infusion pump
B. Obtain the current serum potassium level
C. Continuously monitor blood pressure
D. Teach guided imagery to decrease pain
Correct answer:
Continuously monitoring blood pressure is crucial in this case because nitroglycerin can cause hypotension as a side effect. Monitoring blood pressure allows the nurse to assess the client's response to the medication and detect any signs of hypotension promptly. This intervention is essential to ensure the effectiveness of nitroglycerin therapy and prevent potential complications. Administering the infusion via an infusion pump is important for accurate dosing but not the most critical at this moment. Obtaining the current serum potassium level is important but not the most immediate concern when the client is experiencing active chest pain. Teaching guided imagery may be beneficial for pain management, but in this scenario, monitoring blood pressure takes precedence due to the potential side effects of nitroglycerin.
A client who was trapped inside a car for hours after a head-on collision is rushed to the emergency department with multiple injuries. During the neurologic examination, the client responds to painful stimuli with decerebrate posturing. This finding indicates damage to which part of the brain?
A. Cortex.
B. Diencephalon.
C. Medulla.
D. Midbrain.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Midbrain. Decerebrate posturing is a specific type of abnormal posturing that indicates damage to the midbrain. In decerebrate posturing, the arms are extended and pronated, and the legs are extended with plantar flexion. This posture is a result of the disruption of the neural pathways between the brain and spinal cord that pass through the midbrain. Damage to the cortex (choice A) would not result in decerebrate posturing. The diencephalon (choice B) is responsible for regulating many important functions, but it does not directly control motor responses like posturing. The medulla (choice C) is primarily involved in regulating vital functions like breathing and heart rate, not motor posturing. Therefore, the correct answer is D, midbrain, as damage to this area leads to decerebrate posturing.
Immediately after birth, the baby was decribed as being a newborn or a/an ____________.
A. obstetrician
B. neonate
C. antenatal
D. foetus
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: neonate. A neonate refers to a newborn baby within the first 28 days of life. The term is commonly used in medical contexts to describe infants right after birth.
Rationale:
1. Obstetrician (Choice A): An obstetrician is a doctor who specializes in pregnancy, childbirth, and postpartum care. This term does not describe the baby itself.
2. Antenatal (Choice C): Antenatal refers to the period before birth, specifically during pregnancy. It does not describe the baby after birth.
3. Foetus (Choice D): A foetus is the term used for an unborn baby in the womb, not for a newborn baby after birth.
In summary, the term "neonate" is the correct choice as it specifically refers to a newborn baby immediately after birth, while the other options do not accurately describe the baby at this stage.
Which of these techniques uses the sense of touch to assess texture, temperature, moisture, and swelling when the nurse is assessing a patient?
A. Palpation.
B. Inspection.
C. Percussion.
D. Auscultation.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Palpation. Palpation is a technique that involves using the sense of touch to assess various aspects such as texture, temperature, moisture, and swelling during a patient assessment. This technique allows the nurse to feel for abnormalities, tenderness, or changes in the patient's body. It is a crucial part of a physical examination as it provides valuable information about the patient's condition.
Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
B: Inspection involves visual examination and does not involve the sense of touch.
C: Percussion is a technique that involves tapping the body to assess underlying structures and is not related to using the sense of touch.
D: Auscultation involves listening to sounds within the body using a stethoscope and does not involve the sense of touch.
2 What is the purpose of the Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)?
A. To offer in-service training for nursing assistants
B. To keep protected health information (PHI) private
C. To encourage people to make decisions about advance directives
D. To detail how abuse should be reported
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: To encourage people to make decisions about advance directives. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) requires healthcare facilities to inform patients about their rights to make decisions about their medical care, including the right to create advance directives. This law empowers individuals to communicate their healthcare wishes in advance, ensuring their preferences are respected even if they are unable to make decisions later.
Choice A is incorrect because the PSDA is not specifically focused on training nursing assistants. Choice B is incorrect as the PSDA does not pertain to the privacy of protected health information, which is covered under HIPAA. Choice D is incorrect as the PSDA is not related to reporting abuse, which is typically governed by state laws and facility policies.
Which of the following is the most common site for fertilization of the egg?
A. Ovary
B. Cervix
C. Fallopian tube
D. Uterus
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C, the Fallopian tube. Fertilization typically occurs in the ampulla of the Fallopian tube, where the egg and sperm meet. This site provides the ideal environment for fertilization due to the presence of cilia that help move the egg and sperm towards each other. Additionally, the Fallopian tube provides nourishment and support for the developing embryo before it travels to the uterus for implantation.
The other choices are incorrect because:
A: The ovary is the site where eggs are produced but not where fertilization occurs.
B: The cervix is the lower part of the uterus and serves as a passageway for sperm to enter the uterus but not the site of fertilization.
D: The uterus is where the fertilized egg implants and develops into a fetus, but fertilization itself does not occur in the uterus.
The LPN/LVN is assessing the nutritional status of several clients. Which client has the greatest nutritional need for additional intake of protein?
A. A college-age track runner with a sprained ankle.
B. A lactating woman nursing her 3-day-old infant.
C. A school-aged child with Type 2 diabetes.
D. An elderly man being treated for a peptic ulcer.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B, a lactating woman nursing her 3-day-old infant. During lactation, women have increased nutritional needs, including protein, to support milk production for their infants. Protein is essential for proper growth and development. While choice A, a college-age track runner with a sprained ankle, may require protein for tissue repair, the lactating woman's need is greater due to the demands of breastfeeding. Choice C, a school-aged child with Type 2 diabetes, may have specific dietary considerations related to diabetes management but does not necessarily require additional protein intake compared to a lactating woman. Choice D, an elderly man being treated for a peptic ulcer, may need protein for wound healing, but the nutritional need for a lactating woman is higher to support her infant's growth.
A victim of partner abuse, parent of one child, describes the partner as someone who is easily frustrated and more likely to be abusive after experiencing an event in which self-esteem is challenged. The most recent episodes of violence were related to feeling "upset"Â over a job loss. What type of therapy would provide the greatest help to the abuser?
A. Voluntary individual or group therapy
B. Court-ordered individual or group therapy
C. Voluntary couples or family therapy
D. Court-ordered couples or family therapy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Voluntary individual or group therapy. This type of therapy would provide the greatest help to the abuser because it focuses on addressing the underlying issues of frustration, self-esteem challenges, and abusive behavior. The key here is that the therapy is voluntary, which means the abuser is more likely to engage and actively participate in the process. In individual or group therapy, the abuser can explore and work on managing emotions, coping strategies, and developing healthier communication skills. Court-ordered therapy (choices B and D) may not be as effective because it could be seen as a punishment rather than a genuine effort to seek help. Couples or family therapy (choice C) may not be appropriate initially as the focus should be on the abuser's personal growth and behavior change.
A rise of 1-degree Fahrenheit of temperature will increase the pulse rate by how many beats per minute?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Correct answer:
A well-established physiological principle states that for every 1°F increase in body temperature, the pulse rate typically rises by about 5 beats per minute, making Choice C correct. This occurs because fever increases metabolic demand, prompting the heart to pump faster to deliver oxygen and nutrients. 3, and 4, underestimate this effect, while 6, slightly overestimates it based on standard clinical observations. For example, a person with a normal pulse of 70 bpm at 98.6°F might see it rise to 75 bpm at 99.6°F. This relationship is part of the bodys compensatory response to heat stress or infection, mediated by the autonomic nervous system. While individual variations exist due to age or fitness, 5 bpm is the widely accepted average in nursing and medical literature, making C the most accurate choice here.
A 62-year-old man complained to his physician of facial grimacing, lip smacking, and rocking of the trunk that occurred 1 to 2 hours after taking his prescribed medication. The man, who suffered from Parkinson disease, had been receiving an antiparkinson drug for 3 years. Which of the following drugs most likely caused the adverse effects reported by the patient?
A. Selegiline
B. Levodopa
C. Entacapone
D. Amantadine
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Levodopa. Levodopa is a common medication used to treat Parkinson's disease. The symptoms described by the patient, such as facial grimacing, lip smacking, and rocking of the trunk, are characteristic of levodopa-induced dyskinesias, which can occur as a side effect of long-term levodopa therapy. Levodopa-induced dyskinesias usually develop after 1-2 hours of taking the medication, as seen in this case.
Choice A: Selegiline is a selective MAO-B inhibitor and is less likely to cause the described adverse effects compared to levodopa.
Choice C: Entacapone is a catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor used in combination with levodopa, but it is not known to cause the specific dyskinesias described.
Choice D: Amantadine is an antiviral agent with antiparkinsonian effects, but it is
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 96 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
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