Nursier
Register
Log in Register Register

LPN exams pharmacology practice questions, set 2

LPN exams · pharmacology

LPN exams pharmacology practice questions set 2

You choose the safer drug action, the vital sign to check, and the teaching that belongs at the bedside. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five pharmacology questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

The following drugs are effective in staphylococcal infections:

  1. A. Ampicillin
  2. B. Co-amoxiclav
  3. C. Fusidic acid
  4. D. Flucloxacillin
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Flucloxacillin

Flucloxacillin (D) is the correct answer as it's highly effective against staphylococcal infections, particularly those caused by Staphylococcus aureus, including beta-lactamase-producing strains. Its stability against these enzymes makes it a first-line choice for skin, soft tissue, and bone infections. Ampicillin (A) is less effective against staphylococci due to its susceptibility to beta-lactamases, targeting mainly Gram-negative bacteria. Co-amoxiclav (B), combining amoxicillin with clavulanic acid, is effective against resistant staphylococci, broadening coverage to anaerobes and other pathogens. Fusidic acid (C) is also effective, often used topically or in combination for systemic staphylococcal infections like osteomyelitis. Metronidazole (original E) targets anaerobes, not staphylococci. Flucloxacillin's narrow-spectrum activity and resistance to beta-lactamases make it ideal for MSSA (methicillin-sensitive S. aureus), balancing efficacy with reduced resistance development.

Question 2

A patient with a long history of hypertension and diabetes now develops confusion. The health care provider wants to make a differential diagnosis between Alzheimer’s disease or multiple infarcts. Which diagnostic procedure should the nurse expect to prepare the patient for first?

  1. A. Electroencephalography (EEG)
  2. B. Positron-emission tomography (PET) scan
  3. C. Computed tomography (CT) scan
  4. D. Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) scan
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Computed tomography (CT) scan

The correct answer is C: Computed tomography (CT) scan. This diagnostic procedure is the most appropriate initial step in differentiating between Alzheimer's disease and multiple infarcts in this case. A CT scan can help identify any structural changes in the brain, such as infarcts or areas of damage, which are more likely to be seen in multiple infarcts rather than Alzheimer's disease. It can also rule out other potential causes of the patient's confusion. Option A (EEG) is not the best choice as it primarily detects electrical activity in the brain and may not provide the structural information needed for this case. Option B (PET scan) is more useful for detecting metabolic changes in the brain and may not be the most appropriate initial test. Option D (SPECT scan) is similar to a PET scan and may not provide the structural details needed for this differential diagnosis. In summary, a CT scan is the most suitable initial diagnostic procedure in this scenario as it can

Question 3

The nurse is reviewing medications used for depression. Which of these statements is a reason that selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are more widely prescribed today than tricyclic antidepressants?

  1. A. SSRIs have fewer sexual side effects.
  2. B. Unlike tricyclic antidepressants, SSRIs do not have drug-food interactions.
  3. C. Tricyclic antidepressants cause serious cardiac dysrhythmias if an overdose occurs.
  4. D. SSRIs cause a therapeutic response faster than tricyclic antidepressants.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Tricyclic antidepressants cause serious cardiac dysrhythmias if an overdose occurs.

The correct answer is C: Tricyclic antidepressants cause serious cardiac dysrhythmias if an overdose occurs. Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic index, meaning that even a small overdose can lead to severe toxicity, including cardiac dysrhythmias that can be life-threatening. This risk of overdose toxicity is a significant concern with tricyclic antidepressants and contributes to their decreased use compared to SSRIs. A: SSRIs having fewer sexual side effects is not the primary reason for their wider use compared to tricyclic antidepressants. While this may be a consideration for some patients, it is not the main factor influencing prescribing patterns. B: Drug-food interactions are indeed a concern with tricyclic antidepressants, but it is not the primary reason why SSRIs are more widely prescribed today. While SSRIs may have a lower risk of drug-food interactions, it is not the main driving factor behind their increased use. D: While SSRIs may have

Question 4

All of the following are general mechanisms of drug permeation Except

  1. A. Aqueous diffusion
  2. B. Aqueous hydrolysis
  3. C. Lipid diffusion
  4. D. Pinocytosis or endocytosis
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Aqueous hydrolysis

Aqueous hydrolysis is the correct answer because it is not a mechanism of drug permeation across biological membranes. Permeation refers to the process by which drugs move across cell membranes to reach their site of action, and it includes aqueous diffusion (A), where drugs pass through aqueous channels or pores; lipid diffusion (C), where lipophilic drugs dissolve into the lipid bilayer; and pinocytosis or endocytosis (D), where cells engulf drugs in vesicles. Special carrier transport (original E) involves specific proteins facilitating drug movement. Aqueous hydrolysis (B), however, is a chemical degradation process where a drug reacts with water, breaking chemical bonds (e.g., in esters or amides), not a physical movement across membranes. This distinction is critical in pharmacology, as permeation mechanisms determine bioavailability and tissue distribution, while hydrolysis affects drug stability, often in the gastrointestinal tract or plasma, not membrane crossing.

Question 5

When evaluating a patient’s use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), the nurse notes that the patient is unable to coordinate the activation of the inhaler with her breathing. What intervention is most appropriate at this time?

  1. A. Notify the doctor that the patient is unable to use the MDI.
  2. B. Obtain an order for a peak flow meter.
  3. C. Obtain an order for a spacer device.
  4. D. Ask the prescriber if the medication can be given orally.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Obtain an order for a spacer device.

The correct answer is C: Obtain an order for a spacer device. This intervention is most appropriate as a spacer device can help improve the delivery of medication from the MDI, even if the patient is unable to coordinate inhalation with activation. The spacer device acts as an intermediary between the inhaler and the patient, allowing the medication to be inhaled more effectively. This ensures that the patient receives the full dose of the medication. Incorrect answers: A: Notifying the doctor that the patient is unable to use the MDI does not directly address the issue of coordination and does not provide a solution. B: Obtaining an order for a peak flow meter is not the most appropriate intervention in this scenario, as it does not address the patient's inability to coordinate the use of the MDI. D: Asking the prescriber if the medication can be given orally is not necessary if the patient can still benefit from using the MDI with the help of a spacer device.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.

Start studying See pricing

Ten more LPN exams pharmacology questions

Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.

Question 6

Which medication would the nurse expect to administer when observing that a patient is fidgety, demonstrates motor restlessness, and jiggles both legs when asked to sit down?

  1. A. Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
  2. B. Molindone (Moban)
  3. C. Biperiden (Akineton)
  4. D. Thioridazine (Mellaril)
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 7

A client tells the nurse, “I took my sleeping pill yesterday evening, but it didn’t seem to work for me like it usually does.” The nurse should consider which variable that can affect drug absorption? Select all that apply.

  1. A. GI function
  2. B. Blood flow to the site of administration
  3. C. The presence of other drugs
  4. D. Route of administration
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 8

What will a psychiatric nurse specialist include in medication teaching for a patient who will be starting an MAOI medication after ending treatment with sertraline hydrochloride (Zoloft)?

  1. A. “Here is some information concerning the foods you must avoid when you are taking your new medication. In 2 weeks, after your last dose of Zoloft, we will meet and I will give you a prescription for your MAOI and answer any questions you may have.”
  2. B. “After you have been off Zoloft for 1 week, come see me. I will order the new medication for you. This list includes all the foods you will not be able to eat while taking your new medicine. We’ll review your diet and medication when we meet, and we will get a blood sample as well.”
  3. C. “After 4 weeks off Zoloft, come see me. The prescription for your new medication will be ready along with a list of foods you will need to avoid once you start taking the medication. I’ll order some blood work at that time as well.”
  4. D. “After 2 days off Zoloft, come in to see me before going to work. I’ll give you a prescription for the new medication, and we can review the foods you will need to avoid while taking the new medication.”
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 9

A 60-year-old male with hyperlipidemia is prescribed fenofibrate. Fenofibrate works by:

  1. A. Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase in the liver
  2. B. Activating peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor alpha (PPAR-alpha)
  3. C. Blocking calcium channels in the blood vessels
  4. D. Increasing the absorption of cholesterol in the intestines
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 10

Drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via Phase I or Phase II reactions. The purpose of both of these types of reactions is to:

  1. A. Inactivate prodrugs before they can be activated by target tissues
  2. B. Change the drugs so they can cross plasma membranes
  3. C. Change drug molecules to a form that an excretory organ can excrete
  4. D. Make these drugs more ionized and polar to facilitate excretion
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 11

Which of the following drugs is an insulin secretagogue:

  1. A. Metformin
  2. B. Pioglitazone
  3. C. Repaglinide
  4. D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 12

Which of the following drugs is an insulin secretagogue:

  1. A. Metformin
  2. B. Pioglitazone
  3. C. Repaglinide
  4. D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 13

Fluoroquinolone antibiotics are most likely indicated in which of the following conditions?

  1. A. Asthma
  2. B. Follicular conjunctivitis
  3. C. GERD
  4. D. Genital infections
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 14

Which of the following drugs acts as a competitive benzodiazepine receptor antagonist:

  1. A. Naloxone
  2. B. Flumazenil
  3. C. Flurazepam
  4. D. Disulfuram
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 15

Which of the following drugs acts as a competitive benzodiazepine receptor antagonist:

  1. A. Naloxone
  2. B. Flumazenil
  3. C. Flurazepam
  4. D. Disulfuram
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

About these LPN exams pharmacology questions

LPN exams pharmacology practice questions, set 2 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.

Start studying See pricing