You choose the safer drug action, the vital sign to check, and the teaching that belongs at the bedside. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five pharmacology questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which best describes the action of ACE inhibitors on the failing heart?
A. ACE inhibitors increase aldosterone
B. ACE inhibitors increased vascular resistance
C. ACE inhibitors decreased cardiac output
D. ACE inhibitors reduced preload
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — ACE inhibitors reduced preload
The correct answer is D: ACE inhibitors reduced preload. ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which leads to vasodilation and reduced preload on the heart. This results in decreased workload for the failing heart, improving its function.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
A: ACE inhibitors do not increase aldosterone. In fact, they decrease aldosterone levels by inhibiting angiotensin II, which stimulates aldosterone release.
B: ACE inhibitors do not increase vascular resistance. They actually reduce vascular resistance by blocking the vasoconstrictive effects of angiotensin II.
C: ACE inhibitors do not decrease cardiac output. They may initially cause a slight decrease due to reduced preload, but overall they improve cardiac output by reducing the workload on the heart.
Question 2
A 70-year-old male with chronic pain is prescribed oxycodone. Oxycodone works by:
A. Binding to opioid receptors in the brain
B. Inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine
C. Inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis
D. Increasing dopamine release
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Binding to opioid receptors in the brain
The correct answer is A: Binding to opioid receptors in the brain. Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic that works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, spinal cord, and other parts of the body to reduce pain perception. Opioid receptors are primarily located in the central nervous system and play a crucial role in pain modulation. By binding to these receptors, oxycodone can produce analgesic effects.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine is a mechanism of action for some antidepressants, not opioids like oxycodone.
C: Inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis is a mechanism of action for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), not opioids like oxycodone.
D: Increasing dopamine release is a mechanism of action for certain stimulant medications, not opioids like oxycodone.
Question 3
Indicate the hypnotic drug which binds selectively to the BZ1 receptor subtype facilitating GABAergic inhibition:
A. Thiopental
B. Zolpidem
C. Flurazepam
D. Phenobarbital
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Zolpidem
The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a hypnotic drug that selectively binds to the BZ1 receptor subtype, which enhances the inhibitory function of the neurotransmitter GABA. This specific binding to the BZ1 receptor subtype results in sedative and hypnotic effects without significant anxiolytic or muscle relaxant properties.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Thiopental - Thiopental is a barbiturate that acts on GABA receptors but does not selectively bind to the BZ1 receptor subtype.
C: Flurazepam - Flurazepam is a benzodiazepine that primarily acts on the BZ2 receptor subtype, not the BZ1 receptor subtype.
D: Phenobarbital - Phenobarbital is a barbiturate that enhances GABAergic transmission but does not selectively bind to the BZ1 receptor subtype.
In summary, Zolpidem is the correct answer because it specifically targets the
Question 4
Indicate the drug belonging to antagonists of heparin:
A. Aspirin
B. Dicumarol
C. Dalteparin
D. Protamine sulfate
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Protamine sulfate
The correct answer is D: Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is an antagonist of heparin because it binds to heparin molecules, forming a stable complex that neutralizes the anticoagulant effects of heparin. This interaction helps to reverse the effects of heparin in cases of heparin overdose or when immediate cessation of anticoagulation is required.
A: Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits platelet aggregation by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase. It is not an antagonist of heparin.
B: Dicumarol is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. It is not an antagonist of heparin.
C: Dalteparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin that acts as an anticoagulant by inhibiting the activity of factor Xa. It is not an antagonist of heparin.
In summary, Protamine sulfate
Question 5
An important concept taught by the nurse when providing medication teaching is the need to provide a complete list of medications taken to health care providers to avoid what?
A. Spending large amounts of money on medications
B. Allergic reactions to medications
C. Drug-drug interactions
D. Critical concentrations of medications in the body
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Drug-drug interactions
It is important that all health care providers have a complete list of the patient's medications to avoid drug-drug interactions caused by one provider ordering a medication, unaware of another medication the patient is taking that could interact with the new prescription. Using the same pharmacist for all prescriptions will also help to prevent this from happening. Informing the provider of all medications taken will not reduce costs of medications, which is best accomplished by requesting generic medications. Allergies should be disclosed to all health care providers as well, but this is not why it is important to provide a complete list of medications taken. Critical concentrations are desirable because that is the amount of drug needed to cause a therapeutic effect, or, in other words, to have the effect the drug is prescribed for.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
Which of the following statements about spare receptors is most correct?
A. Spare receptors, in the absence of drug, are sequestered in the cytoplasm
B. Spare receptors will be detected if the intracellular effect of drug-receptor interaction lasts longer than the drug-receptor interaction itself
C. Spare receptors influence the maximal efficacy of the drug-receptor system
D. Spare receptors activate the effector machinery of the cell without the need for a drug
Correct answer:
The most correct statement is that spare receptors will be detected if the intracellular effect of drug-receptor interaction lasts longer than the drug-receptor interaction itself (B). Spare receptors exist when maximal response occurs before all receptors are occupied (e.g., histamine on H2 receptors), detectable when downstream signaling (e.g., cAMP) persists post-dissociation. Option A is false; spare receptors are membrane-bound, not cytoplasmic. Option C is incorrect; maximal efficacy is set by receptor-effector coupling, not spare receptor number. Option D is wrong; receptors need agonists for activation. Option E (original) is incorrect; EC50 < Kd indicates spare receptors, not the reverse. This phenomenon increases sensitivity, explaining why low agonist doses can achieve full effects in systems like beta-adrenergic signaling.
Which of the following would be an appropriate change in the treatment plan for a patient with osteoporosis and hypertension experiencing a significant decrease in bone mass despite current therapy?
A. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide with propranolol.
B. Substitute raloxifene with ethinyl estradiol.
C. Add calcitonin to the current regimen.
D. Increase the daily dose of calcium carbonate.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Add calcitonin to the current regimen. Calcitonin helps to increase bone density and reduce bone loss in osteoporosis. This would address the significant decrease in bone mass.
Choice A (substitute hydrochlorothiazide with propranolol) is incorrect as propranolol does not have a direct impact on bone mass.
Choice B (substitute raloxifene with ethinyl estradiol) is incorrect as ethinyl estradiol is not typically used for osteoporosis and may not be effective.
Choice D (increase the daily dose of calcium carbonate) is incorrect as simply increasing calcium intake may not be sufficient to address the bone loss, especially in the presence of inadequate bone formation.
Adding calcitonin addresses the root cause of bone loss in osteoporosis and is therefore the appropriate change in the treatment plan.
A nurse is caring for a newborn in the nursery following a circumcision. The newborn's grandparent, who does not have an identification bracelet, requests to take the newborn to his mother's room. What action should the nurse take?
A. Notify security.
B. Respectfully deny the grandparent's request.
C. Contact the mother for verification.
D. Escort the grandparent and newborn to the room.
Correct answer:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to respectfully deny the grandparent's request. In healthcare settings, strict security protocols are in place to ensure the safety of newborns. Only individuals with proper identification bracelets are allowed to transport newborns to prevent unauthorized individuals from taking them. Contacting the mother for verification would be time-consuming and may not be feasible immediately. Escorting the grandparent and newborn without proper identification would violate security protocols and compromise the newborn's safety. Notifying security should be done only if there is a threat or concern for safety, which is not the case in this scenario. Therefore, the best course of action is for the nurse to respectfully deny the grandparent's request to uphold the safety and security measures in place.
Two different pain meds are given together for pain relief. The drug-drug interaction is:
A. Synergistic
B. Antagonistic
C. Potentiative
D. Additive
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Synergistic. When two drugs have a synergistic interaction, they work together to produce a stronger effect than if used alone. In the case of pain meds, combining two drugs that have a synergistic interaction can lead to enhanced pain relief. This occurs because the drugs act on different pathways to produce a more effective outcome.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Antagonistic - This would mean the drugs work against each other, reducing the overall effect.
C: Potentiative - This term implies that one drug enhances the effect of the other, but synergistic interaction implies a stronger combined effect.
D: Additive - While this term suggests the drugs work together, it does not capture the idea of a synergistic interaction where the combined effect is greater than the sum of individual effects.
A nurse should expect that an increase in dopamine activity might play a significant role in the development of which mental illness?
A. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Body dysmorphic disorder
D. Parkinson’s disease
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Schizophrenia spectrum disorder. Dopamine dysregulation is a key factor in the development of schizophrenia. Excessive dopamine activity in certain areas of the brain can lead to symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, which are characteristic of schizophrenia. This neurotransmitter imbalance is often targeted by antipsychotic medications to help manage symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not primarily associated with dopamine dysregulation in the same way as schizophrenia. Major depressive disorder is more closely linked to serotonin and norepinephrine imbalances, while body dysmorphic disorder is associated with distorted body image perceptions. Parkinson's disease involves dopamine depletion in the brain's motor control areas, not the same pathway as seen in schizophrenia.
A 50-year-old male with hyperlipidemia is prescribed rosuvastatin. Rosuvastatin works by:
A. Inhibiting the absorption of cholesterol in the intestines
B. Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase in the liver
C. Increasing HDL cholesterol levels
D. Increasing the excretion of cholesterol in the bile
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase in the liver. Rosuvastatin is a statin medication that works by inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, which plays a key role in the liver's production of cholesterol. By inhibiting this enzyme, rosuvastatin reduces the synthesis of cholesterol in the liver, leading to decreased levels of LDL cholesterol in the bloodstream. This mechanism helps lower the risk of cardiovascular events in patients with hyperlipidemia.
Choice A is incorrect because rosuvastatin does not directly inhibit the absorption of cholesterol in the intestines. Choice C is incorrect as rosuvastatin primarily lowers LDL cholesterol levels and has minimal impact on increasing HDL cholesterol levels. Choice D is incorrect as rosuvastatin does not directly increase the excretion of cholesterol in the bile.
A client who is in the rehabilitation facility with newly diagnosed Parkinson's disease (PD) has levodopa-carbidopa prescribed. During the care planning session for this client, the nurse discusses which aspects with the other members of the health care team? (Select all that apply.)
A. Ask the dietician to avoid increasing the amounts of foods high in Vitamin B6.
B. Lessening of tremors
C. Remind others on the team that this medication will not relieve all symptoms of PD.
D. Ask the evening shift nurses to give the last dose earlier in the day if the client has insomnia.
Correct answer:
Levodopa-carbidopa is a medication commonly used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease (PD). It can cause side effects such as hypotension with sudden position changes. To assist the client in managing this side effect, the physical therapy assistant can help avoid sudden position changes. Additionally, if insomnia occurs, adjusting the timing of the last dose earlier in the day can be beneficial. It is important to note that drowsiness can also be a side effect of the medication and should be reported to the nurse. Foods high in Vitamin B6 can interfere with the absorption of levodopa-carbidopa; hence, it is advisable to avoid increasing the consumption of such foods. Lastly, it is crucial to remind the team that while this medication helps alleviate symptoms like tremors, it may not relieve all symptoms of PD comprehensively.
A 62-year-old man is to receive lidocaine as treatment for a symptomatic dysrhythmia. Upon assessment, the nurse notes that he has a history of alcoholism and has late-stage liver failure. The nurse will expect which adjustments to his drug therapy?
A. The dosage will be reduced by 50%.
B. A diuretic will be added to the lidocaine.
C. The lidocaine will be changed to an oral dosage form.
D. An increased dosage of lidocaine will be prescribed so as to obtain adequate blood levels.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: The dosage will be reduced by 50%. In this case, the patient has late-stage liver failure, which can impair the metabolism and clearance of lidocaine. Since lidocaine is metabolized in the liver, reducing the dosage by 50% will prevent potential toxicity due to impaired liver function.
Incorrect Choices:
B: Adding a diuretic to lidocaine is not indicated in this scenario as it does not address the issue of impaired liver function affecting lidocaine metabolism.
C: Changing lidocaine to an oral dosage form does not address the issue of impaired liver function and may still lead to toxicity due to altered metabolism.
D: Increasing the dosage of lidocaine would only increase the risk of toxicity in a patient with impaired liver function. It is important to reduce the dosage to prevent adverse effects.
Drugs that are receptor antagonists, such as beta blockers, may cause:
A. Down-regulation of the drug receptor
B. An exaggerated response if abruptly discontinued
C. Partial blockade of the effects of agonist drugs
D. An exaggerated response to competitive drug agonists
Correct answer:
Step 1: Receptor antagonists block the action of agonist drugs by binding to the receptors.
Step 2: Beta blockers are receptor antagonists that block beta-adrenergic receptors.
Step 3: Abrupt discontinuation of beta blockers can lead to an exaggerated response due to unopposed stimulation of beta receptors.
Step 4: This can cause rebound effects like increased heart rate and blood pressure.
Step 5: Therefore, an exaggerated response if abruptly discontinued is the correct answer.
Summary:
A: Down-regulation of drug receptors is incorrect because antagonists blocking receptors do not lead to down-regulation.
C: Partial blockade of agonist drug effects is incorrect as antagonists fully block agonist effects.
D: Exaggerated response to competitive drug agonists is incorrect as antagonists reduce the response to agonists.
A patient will be discharged with a 1-week supply of an opioid analgesic for pain management after abdominal surgery. The nurse will include which information in the teaching plan?
A. How to prevent dehydration due to diarrhea
B. Importance of taking the drug only when the pain becomes severe
C. How to prevent constipation
D. Importance of taking the drug on an empty stomach
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: How to prevent constipation. Opioid analgesics commonly cause constipation as a side effect. Teaching the patient how to prevent constipation, such as increasing fiber intake and staying hydrated, is crucial for their overall well-being. This information will help the patient manage a common side effect of the medication and improve their quality of life post-surgery.
Choice A is incorrect because dehydration due to diarrhea is not a common side effect of opioid analgesics. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for pain to become severe before taking the medication can lead to uncontrolled pain and poor pain management. Choice D is incorrect because taking the drug on an empty stomach is not typically necessary for opioid analgesics and may actually increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects.
LPN exams pharmacology practice questions, set 8 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
