LPN exams pharmacology practice questions, set 3

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LPN exams pharmacology practice questions set 3

You choose the safer drug action, the vital sign to check, and the teaching that belongs at the bedside. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five pharmacology questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

The nurse is meeting with a community group about medication safety. The nurse must emphasize that patients at high risk for drug interactions include which groups? (Select all that apply.)

  1. A. Older patients
  2. B. Patients with chronic health conditions
  3. C. Patients taking three or more drugs
  4. D. Patients dealing with only one pharmacy
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Older patients

The correct answer is A (Older patients) because elderly individuals tend to have multiple comorbidities and are more likely to be prescribed multiple medications, increasing the risk of drug interactions. Older patients also tend to have age-related physiological changes that can affect drug metabolism. Choice B (Patients with chronic health conditions) is not necessarily always at high risk for drug interactions, as it depends on the specific medications they are taking and their individual health status. Choice C (Patients taking three or more drugs) is not always a high-risk group, as drug interactions can occur even with fewer medications based on the specific drugs being taken and individual patient factors. Choice D (Patients dealing with only one pharmacy) is not directly related to the risk of drug interactions, as the number of pharmacies used by a patient does not necessarily correlate with the risk of drug interactions.

Question 2

A patient has been prescribed Citalopram (Celexa) to treat his depression. Education regarding how quickly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants work would be:

  1. A. Sleep should improve almost immediately upon starting citalopram
  2. B. Full response to the SSRI may take 2 to 4 months after he reaches the full therapeutic dose.
  3. C. Appetite and concentration improve in the first 1 to 2 weeks.
  4. D. His dysphoric mood will improve in 1 to 2 weeks.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Full response to the SSRI may take 2 to 4 months after he reaches the full therapeutic dose.

Step-by-step rationale: 1. SSRI antidepressants like Citalopram typically take time to build up in the body and exert their full therapeutic effects. 2. It usually takes about 2 to 4 weeks to start noticing improvements in symptoms like mood, appetite, and concentration. 3. The full response to the SSRI may take 2 to 4 months after reaching the full therapeutic dose due to the gradual adjustment of serotonin levels. 4. Therefore, educating the patient that full response may take 2 to 4 months after reaching the full therapeutic dose is important for managing expectations and ensuring compliance with the treatment plan. Summary: - Option A is incorrect as improvements in symptoms do not occur immediately upon starting Citalopram. - Option C is incorrect as improvements in appetite and concentration typically take longer than 1 to 2 weeks. - Option D is incorrect as the improvement in dysphoric mood may take longer than 1 to 2 weeks.

Question 3

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

  1. A. Prime the blood tubing with normal saline.
  2. B. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers.
  3. C. Infuse the blood rapidly over 30 minutes.
  4. D. Obtain the client's vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Verify the client's identity using two identifiers.

Verifying the client's identity using two identifiers is a critical patient safety measure to ensure the correct patient receives the blood transfusion. This process involves checking the patient's identity using at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number, to prevent administration errors. Priming the blood tubing with normal saline is necessary to ensure there are no air bubbles in the tubing, but it is not the immediate action required before administering the blood. Infusing packed red blood cells over 30 minutes is generally too rapid and can lead to adverse reactions; a slower rate is recommended for safe administration. Obtaining vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion is not frequent enough to monitor the client adequately for potential transfusion reactions or complications; vital signs should be monitored more frequently, especially during the initial phase of the transfusion.

Question 4

Which of the following drugs was most likely included in the therapeutic regimen of the patient with bilateral adrenal hyperplasia?

  1. A. Hydrochlorothiazide
  2. B. Mannitol
  3. C. Furosemide
  4. D. Fenoldopam
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Furosemide

The correct answer is C: Furosemide. In bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, excess production of aldosterone occurs, leading to fluid retention and hypertension. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that helps reduce blood volume and lower blood pressure by promoting the excretion of sodium and water in the urine. This drug is commonly used to manage hypertension associated with adrenal gland disorders. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Identify the condition: bilateral adrenal hyperplasia. 2. Understand the pathophysiology: aldosterone excess leads to fluid retention and hypertension. 3. Choose the appropriate drug class: diuretics to reduce blood volume and lower blood pressure. 4. Select the specific drug: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is effective in managing hypertension associated with adrenal gland disorders. Summary: A: Hydrochlorothiazide - Thiazide diuretic, not as effective in cases of aldosterone excess. B: Mannitol - Osmotic diure

Question 5

An older female adult patient who has been treated with clozapine (Clozaril) for 9 months calls to cancel a clinic appointment because of flulike symptoms, including a sore throat, fever, and tiredness. Which statement shows the best understanding regarding the management of the patient’s symptoms?

  1. A. “I think you need to drink lots of juices and water and go to bed. Call me at the end of the week to reschedule your appointment.”
  2. B. “I want you to please keep the appointment, and I will arrange for some blood work to be done while you are here.”
  3. C. “It’s flu season all right. Get better soon, and call me to reschedule when you’re feeling better.”
  4. D. “This may be something much more serious than the flu. Go to the hospital at once.”
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — “I want you to please keep the appointment, and I will arrange for some blood work to be done while you are here.”

Step-by-step rationale for answer B: 1. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious side effect characterized by a low white blood cell count. 2. The patient's symptoms of sore throat, fever, and tiredness may indicate a potential infection or agranulocytosis. 3. Blood work is necessary to monitor the patient's white blood cell count to rule out agranulocytosis. 4. Keeping the appointment and arranging for blood work allows for timely assessment and appropriate management. Summary of other choices: A: Incorrect. Advising the patient to drink juices and water and rest without further assessment may delay necessary medical intervention. C: Incorrect. Merely acknowledging flu season without taking proactive steps to assess the patient's condition is inadequate. D: Incorrect. Jumping to conclusions about the seriousness of the symptoms without proper evaluation through blood work is premature and may cause unnecessary alarm.

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Question 6

A client with a history of angina pectoris complains of substernal chest pain. The nurse checks the client's blood pressure and administers nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingually. Five minutes later, the client is still experiencing chest pain. If the blood pressure is still stable, what should the nurse do next?

  1. A. Administer another nitroglycerin tablet.
  2. B. Apply 1 to 3 L/minute of oxygen via nasal cannula.
  3. C. Call for a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) to be performed.
  4. D. Wait an additional 5 minutes, then give a second nitroglycerin tablet.
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Question 7

A 50-year-old female with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. Levothyroxine works by:

  1. A. Increasing the production of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
  2. B. Replacing deficient thyroid hormone
  3. C. Inhibiting thyroid hormone synthesis
  4. D. Increasing the metabolism of thyroid hormones
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Question 8

Select the drug stimulating the protective function of the mucous barrier and the stability of the mucous membrane against damaging factors:

  1. A. De-nol
  2. B. Sucralfate
  3. C. Misoprostol
  4. D. Omeprazole
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Question 9

Which set of instructions will the nurse include in the teaching plan of a patient who is prescribed fluphenazine (Prolixin) and has developed a thickly white-coated tongue?

  1. A. “Remember to avoid foods high in sugar, brush your teeth and tongue frequently, floss, and gargle with mouthwash. Check your tongue daily, and notify your physician if this happens again.”
  2. B. “Remember to avoid foods high in sugar, brush your teeth frequently, and gargle with mouthwash. Smoking can make the white coating on your tongue worse.”
  3. C. “I know this looks troubling, but it is not a problem. Continue taking your medication, and this will subside in about 3 weeks.”
  4. D. “Nasal inhalants can interact with your medication and cause an infection on your tongue.”
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Question 10

The following anti-infective drugs are suitable as prophylaxis in the stated conditions:

  1. A. Co-amoxiclav - human and animal bites
  2. B. Ciprofloxacin - close adult contacts of meningococcal disease
  3. C. Flucloxacillin - prevention of a secondary case of diphtheria
  4. D. Erythromycin - whooping cough contact in an unvaccinated child under 1 year old
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Question 11

Which of the following drug classes is/are used in initial hypertension management of African American population?

  1. A. Clonidine primary
  2. B. Betablockers primary
  3. C. Thiazide or calcium channel blocker primary
  4. D. ACE-1 primary
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Question 12

A patient asks you how does the statin drugs work. How would you respond?

  1. A. It inhibits the absorption of dietary cholesterol in the small intestine
  2. B. It inhibits hydroxymethyl lutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase to reduce the biosynthesis of cholesterol in the liver
  3. C. It binds to bile in the intestinal track forming an insoluble complex that is excreted in the feces
  4. D. It stimulates the biliary system to increase the excretion of dietary cholesterol
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Question 13

Which of the following variables is a factor in drug absorption?

  1. A. The smaller the surface area for absorption, the more rapidly the drug is absorbed.
  2. B. A rich blood supply to the area of absorption leads to better absorption
  3. C. The less soluble the drug, the more easily it is absorbed.
  4. D. Ionized drugs are easily absorbed across the cell membrane.
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Question 14

A 68-year-old man was diagnosed with systolic heart failure with normal ejection fraction and normal sinus rhythm at rest. A treatment with captopril was started. Which of the following actions most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of captopril in this patient?

  1. A. Increased cardiac contractility
  2. B. Reduction of angiotensin-mediated vasoconstriction in the kidney
  3. C. Reduction of preload and afterload
  4. D. Stimulation of epinephrine release from adrenergic nerves
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Question 15

The nurse in the clinical research setting is knowledgeable about ethical principles and protection of human subjects. What principle is demonstrated by ensuring the patient’s right to self- determination?

  1. A. Beneficence
  2. B. Respect for persons
  3. C. Justice
  4. D. Informed consent
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About these LPN exams pharmacology questions

LPN exams pharmacology practice questions, set 3 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

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