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LPN exams pharmacology practice questions

LPN exams · pharmacology

LPN exams pharmacology practice questions

You choose the safer drug action, the vital sign to check, and the teaching that belongs at the bedside. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five pharmacology questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

Which question would be most appropriate for the nurse to ask a patient with depression who is experiencing nausea, palpitations, and “a terrible headache and chest pain” after physical examination reveals elevated blood pressure and temperature, dilated pupils, flushed head and face, and diaphoresis?

  1. A. “When did you last take your phenelzine (Nardil)?”
  2. B. “Did you take your amitriptyline (Elavil) on schedule?”
  3. C. “What natural foods have you had in the last 24 hours?”
  4. D. “Have you had any alcohol to drink within the last 24 hours?”
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — “When did you last take your phenelzine (Nardil)?”

This question requires analytical decision making to identify hypertensive crises and data for the evaluation process. Knowing when the last dose of the monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) was taken helps determine immediate treatment. Although the ingestion of alcohol is pertinent to determining what tyramine-containing foods the patient may have had, it is not as crucial as knowing when the last dose of MAOI was consumed. Although natural foods may produce similar bioactivity and other antidepressants should not be taken along with an MAOI, these answers do not reflect medication assessment and evaluation. The patient is experiencing the clinical manifestation of hypertensive crisis. The classic symptoms of this condition are severe occipital headache, dilated pupils, hypertension, and palpitations or arrhythmias. This syndrome can be caused when the patient who is taking an MAOI ingests food containing tyramine, an amino acid released from foods that undergo hydrolysis (e.g., fermentation, aging, pickling, smoking, spoilage). This inhibits the monoamine oxidase and allows tyramine to reach the adrenergic nerve endings and cause the release of excess norepinephrine, which causes hypertensive crisis. To confirm the physical syndrome, first determine whether the patient is taking an MAOI. Knowing when the last dose was ingested provides a window for the duration of hypertension and therapeutic nursing interventions.

Question 2

A patient who has been taking an antidepressant for 2 months shares with the nurse, “Since my depression is over, I’ve stopped the Prozac and I won’t need to see you any longer.” Which response by a nurse would be most therapeutic?

  1. A. “Do you recall that we discussed the need for you to take the medication for up to 1 year before trying to taper off the drug? It is not uncommon for some patients to require antidepressant medication over their lifetime.”
  2. B. “It is not recommended that you stop the antidepressants abruptly. I strongly suggest that you continue seeing me regularly to ensure that any change in your condition will be treated immediately.”
  3. C. “You should not discontinue your medication without consulting your psychiatrist. You will very likely experience withdrawal symptoms and become more depressed than you were before.”
  4. D. “Although it isn’t wise to stop the medication as you have, you seem to be handling things very well. Call me if you have any questions and follow-up with your psychiatrist in a year.”
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — “Do you recall that we discussed the need for you to take the medication for up to 1 year before trying to taper off the drug? It is not uncommon for some patients to require antidepressant medication over their lifetime.”

Most patients who respond initially to antidepressant therapy require at least 1 year of therapy and may take medication on a lifetime basis. This is similar to patients who take antihypertensives or insulin. The patient’s statement alerts the nurse to set clear therapy goals that extend beyond medication assessment. Prozac takes 2 to 4 weeks to reach a steady state and is maintained in the body for several weeks after it is discontinued, but the nurse’s suggestion of tapering off the medication is a wise intervention for this patient, who seems impulsive about medication adherence. A patient with a knowledge deficit and nonadherence potential requires communication that recalls prior teaching and that builds on the knowledge he or she already has. Reminding the patient of the time it takes to become depressed provides anticipatory guidance about the possibility of needing medication on a lifetime basis. Sarcastic humor is usually a poor response that demeans the patient and may reflect the nurse’s impatience and a judgmental attitude toward the patient, and a laissez-faire response does not reflect a caring attitude. Withdrawal usually is not a problem for medications with a long half-life.

Question 3

A patient will be starting on fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) therapy and taking 20 mg PO every morning. Which nursing intervention would be most therapeutic for the nurse to teach the patient?

  1. A. “Make sure that you take your pulse before getting out of bed in the morning.”
  2. B. “Try taking your medication with breakfast if you begin experiencing nausea.”
  3. C. “You may need to reduce your fluids at night because of nocturnal urination.”
  4. D. “Remember to avoid red wine, nuts, and any cheese except cottage and cream.”
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — “Try taking your medication with breakfast if you begin experiencing nausea.”

This question requires the application of knowledge about selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) to a specific plan for medication education. To reduce nausea, the patient should be advised to take the medicine with meals. When teaching patients who are taking tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), one must emphasize that patients should dangle their legs over the bed and change positions slowly to prevent postural hypotension. It is also advisable for patients to increase fluids, exercise, and roughage intake to prevent the anticholinergic effects of antidepressants. Foods that contain tyramine (e.g., Chianti, nuts, cheese) are prohibited when patients are taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). The primary synaptic activity for SSRIs is to inhibit the reuptake of 5-HT. The possible clinical effects of 5-HT include the following: gastrointestinal (GI) disturbances and sexual dysfunction. Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac), an SSRI that is usually administered in the morning to reduce the potential of a side-effect profile that is 2+ for insomnia/agitation, also demonstrates a 3+ for GI disturbances.

Question 4

The following antibacterial drugs inhibit folic acid biosynthesis:

  1. A. Amoxicillin
  2. B. Aztreonam
  3. C. Levofloxacin
  4. D. Trimethoprim
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Trimethoprim

Trimethoprim is the correct answer because it inhibits folic acid biosynthesis by targeting dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme essential for bacterial DNA synthesis. This selective mechanism exploits the fact that bacteria synthesize folate de novo, while humans acquire it from diet, minimizing toxicity to the host. Amoxicillin (A) is a beta-lactam antibiotic that disrupts cell wall synthesis by inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking, unrelated to folate pathways. Aztreonam (B) also targets cell wall synthesis, specifically in Gram-negative bacteria, with no effect on folic acid production. Levofloxacin (C) is a fluoroquinolone that inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, disrupting DNA replication rather than folate metabolism. Although sulfonamides (originally option E) also inhibit folic acid synthesis by blocking dihydropteroate synthase, Trimethoprim (D) is retained as the correct choice within the four-option limit. This specificity makes Trimethoprim effective against a range of bacterial infections, including urinary tract infections, while avoiding significant human cell interference.

Question 5

During a follow-up visit, the health care provider examines the fundus of the patient’s eye. Afterward, the patient asks the nurse, “Why is he looking at my eyes when I have high blood pressure? It does not make sense to me!” What is the best response by the nurse?

  1. A. “We need to monitor for drug toxicity.”
  2. B. “We must watch for increased intraocular pressure.”
  3. C. “The provider is assessing for visual changes that may occur with drug therapy.”
  4. D. “The provider is making sure the treatment is effective over the long-term.”
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — “The provider is making sure the treatment is effective over the long-term.”

Rationale for Correct Answer (D): The nurse should explain that examining the fundus can help assess the long-term effectiveness of high blood pressure treatment. Changes in the blood vessels of the eye can indicate the impact of hypertension on the patient's overall health. Monitoring the fundus can reveal signs of hypertensive retinopathy, a serious complication of uncontrolled high blood pressure. By checking the fundus, the provider can ensure the treatment is preventing damage to the eyes and potentially other organs. This response educates the patient on the importance of regular eye examinations in managing hypertension. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Monitoring for drug toxicity is not the primary reason for examining the fundus in a patient with high blood pressure. B: Increased intraocular pressure is related to conditions like glaucoma, not specifically to high blood pressure. C: Visual changes from drug therapy are important to monitor, but the fundus examination in this context is more focused on assessing hypertension-related changes.

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Question 6

The nurse is discouraged because his plan to reduce negative symptoms of schizophrenia (apathy, avolition, inattentiveness, poor socialization, poor eye contact and flat affect, etc.) in a client is not working. The mentor’s remark that helps place the problem in perspective is:

  1. A. You aren’t responsible for the behavior of any other person.'
  2. B. Clients can be perverse and cling to symptoms despite our efforts.'
  3. C. Negative symptoms have been associated with prefrontal cortical pathology.'
  4. D. Negative symptoms can be improved by manipulating psychosocial and environmental factors. The problem is finding the right combination.'
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Question 7

Hypothalamic and pituitary hormones (and their synthetic analogs) have pharmacologic applications in three areas EXCEPT the following:

  1. A. As replacement therapy for hormone deficiency states
  2. B. As drug therapy for a variety of disorders using pharmacologic doses to elicit a hormonal effect that is not present at physiologic a blood levels
  3. C. As a diagnostic tool for performing stimulation tests to diagnose hypo- or hyperfunctional endocrine states
  4. D. As food supplements
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Question 8

The following infections have been paired with appropriate antibacterial therapy:

  1. A. Acute otitis media - amoxicillin
  2. B. Acute epiglottitis in children - cefotaxime/ceftriaxone or chloramphenicol
  3. C. Legionnaire's disease - erythromycin and rifampicin
  4. D. Acute cystitis arising outside hospital in adults - trimethoprim
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Question 9

A patient will be discharged on quinidine sulfate (Quinidex) extended-release tablets for the treatment of ventricular ectopy. The nurse will include which information in the teaching plan?

  1. A. The medication should be stopped once the cardiac symptoms subside.
  2. B. Signs of cinchonism, such as tinnitus, loss of hearing, or slight blurring of vision, may occur.
  3. C. It is important to use sunscreen products when outside because of increased photosensitivity.
  4. D. If any tablet or capsule is visible in the stool, contact the prescriber immediately.
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Question 10

Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers (blood-brain or fetal-placental) is true?

  1. A. Water soluble and ionized drugs cross these barriers rapidly
  2. B. The blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells
  3. C. The fetal-placental barrier protects the fetus from drugs taken by the mother
  4. D. Lipid soluble drugs do not pass these barriers and are safe for pregnant women
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Question 11

The following antibacterial drug combinations are of accepted benefit in the treatment of the stated infection:

  1. A. Amoxicillin and cefadroxil for lower urinary tract infection in severely ill patients
  2. B. Phenoxymethylpenicillin and tetracycline for acute osteomyelitis in a child under 5 years
  3. C. Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol in the initial treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis (TB)
  4. D. Erythromycin and tetracycline for septicaemia
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Question 12

All of the following statements concerning the general principles of therapy with lipid-lowering drugs are true EXCEPT:

  1. A. Therapy with a lipid-lowering drug should be always accompanied by an appropriate diet
  2. B. A lipid-lowering diet should be discontinued if it fails to decrease the levels of plasma LDL cholesterol by at least 10%
  3. C. Lipid-lowering drugs should only be administered after at least 3 months of prior dietary therapy
  4. D. Some combinations of lipid-lowering drugs are synergistic
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Question 13

A patient taking medication for depression states, “I need to stop taking my medication because it blurs my vision, and I’m making mistakes when I paint jewelry by hand.” Which response by a nurse would be most therapeutic?

  1. A. “If you cannot take medication, would you consider a course of 6 to 10 electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) treatments offered on an outpatient basis? ECT treatments usually work immediately.”
  2. B. “Do you recall the two of us discussing that blurred vision may occur but that it will resolve shortly? In the meantime, you might find a magnifying glass helpful.”
  3. C. “I understand your concern considering that you need to work to receive health insurance. Would you like me to ask the psychiatrist to change your medication?”
  4. D. “You may need to apply for a sick leave for 6 months until your depression improves enough to lessen the medication dosage.”
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Question 14

What is the expected therapeutic outcome of the simultaneous administration of two medications?

  1. A. The adverse effects of one of the drugs are nullified by the other drug.
  2. B. The combined effects are greater than the effects of either one of the drugs alone
  3. C. One of the drugs enhances metabolism, while the other drug enhances either distribution or absorption.
  4. D. Both drugs are toxic in isolation but therapeutic when administered together.
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Question 15

Which of the following actions was most likely to contribute to the therapeutic effect of prednisone in the patient's Crohn disease?

  1. A. Increased catabolism of prostaglandins
  2. B. Decreased number of circulating neutrophils
  3. C. Increased proliferation of T cells
  4. D. Increased activation of complement system
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About these LPN exams pharmacology questions

LPN exams pharmacology practice questions for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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