LPN exams mental health practice questions, set 16
LPN exams · mental health
LPN exams mental health practice questionsset 16
You choose the therapeutic response, the safety priority, and the cue that means the patient is getting worse. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five mental health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Morgan is a third-year nursing student in her psychiatric clinical rotation. She is assigned to an 80-year-old widow admitted for major depressive disorder. The patient describes many losses and sadness. Morgan becomes teary and says meaningfully, 'I am so sorry for you.' Morgan's instructor overhears the conversation and says, 'I understand that getting tearful is a human response. Yet, sympathy isn't helpful in this field:' The instructor urges Morgan to focus on:
A. Adopting the patient's sorrow as your own.
B. Maintaining pure objectivity.
C. Using empathy to demonstrate respect and validation of the patient's feelings.
D. Using touch to let her know that everything is going to be alright.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Using empathy to demonstrate respect and validation of the patient's feelings.
The correct answer is C: Using empathy to demonstrate respect and validation of the patient's feelings. Empathy involves understanding and sharing the feelings of another, without adopting them as your own. In this situation, Morgan should acknowledge the patient's emotions without becoming emotionally overwhelmed herself. Empathy helps build a therapeutic relationship, showing the patient that their feelings are valid and respected.
A: Adopting the patient's sorrow as your own is not recommended as it can lead to burnout and boundary issues.
B: Maintaining pure objectivity is important in healthcare, but complete detachment may hinder the therapeutic relationship.
D: Using touch may not be appropriate without understanding the patient's comfort level and boundaries. Touch should be used cautiously in psychiatric settings.
Question 2
During an intake assessment, a nurse asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, I'm here for my heart, not my head problems. Which is the nurse's best response?
A. It is just a routine part of our assessment. All clients are asked these same questions.Â
B. Why are you concerned about these types of questions?Â
C. Psychological factors, like excessive stress, have been found to affect medical conditions.Â
D. We can skip these questions, if you like. It isn't imperative that we complete this section.Â
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Psychological factors, like excessive stress, have been found to affect medical conditions.Â
Rationale: Answer C is correct because it explains the relevance of psychosocial questions to the client's medical condition. It validates the client's concerns by linking psychological factors, such as stress, to physical health. This response emphasizes the interconnectedness of physical and mental well-being, fostering client understanding and cooperation.
Summary of Other Choices:
- A: This response dismisses the client's concerns and does not address the importance of psychosocial factors in health.
- B: This response does not provide information on the connection between psychological factors and physical health, which may not address the client's resistance.
- D: This response disregards the significance of psychosocial questions in the assessment and may hinder the client's overall understanding of their health.
Question 3
The nurse is developing an education program for a client on healthy family nutrition using Pender's Health Promotion Model as the framework. Which client statement indicates to the nurse that the client has a high level of perceived self-efficacy?
A. "Eating healthy is expensive but within our family budget."
B. "I am confident that I can create a healthy weekly meal plan."
C. "My children's school encourages healthy lunches."
D. "It is hard to find time to shop and prepare healthy meals."
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — "I am confident that I can create a healthy weekly meal plan."
The correct answer is B because the client's statement reflects a high level of perceived self-efficacy, which is a key component of Pender's Health Promotion Model. The client expresses confidence in their ability to create a healthy weekly meal plan, indicating belief in their capability to perform the desired behavior successfully. This demonstrates a strong sense of self-efficacy, which is essential for initiating and sustaining behavior change.
Choice A is incorrect because it only addresses financial considerations, not the client's belief in their ability to make healthy choices. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on external factors rather than the client's personal confidence. Choice D is incorrect because it highlights barriers to healthy eating, rather than demonstrating self-efficacy in overcoming challenges.
Question 4
A patient diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder has been undergoing therapy for several months. Which outcome indicates that the patient is progressing in therapy?
A. The patient has developed a strong therapeutic relationship with the therapist.
B. The patient's different personalities are beginning to merge.
C. The patient is able to recall traumatic events without dissociating.
D. The patient reports fewer gaps in memory.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — The patient's different personalities are beginning to merge.
In dissociative identity disorder, the merging of different personalities is a crucial indicator of progress in therapy. As the different identities merge, it signifies that the patient is integrating fragmented aspects of their self, leading to a more cohesive sense of identity and a reduction in dissociative symptoms. This process is a significant therapeutic milestone in the treatment of dissociative identity disorder as it promotes internal cohesion and decreases internal conflict. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while developing a strong therapeutic relationship, recalling traumatic events without dissociating, and reporting fewer gaps in memory are important aspects of therapy, the merging of different personalities is specifically indicative of substantial progress in treating dissociative identity disorder.
Question 5
The nurse is planning the care for a 32-year-old male client with acute depression. Which nursing intervention would be best in helping this client deal with his depression?
A. Ensure that the client's day is filled with group activities.
B. Assist the client in exploring feelings of shame, anger, and guilt.
C. Allow the client to initiate and determine activities of daily living.
D. Encourage the client to explore the rationale for his depression.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Assist the client in exploring feelings of shame, anger, and guilt.
Assisting the client in exploring feelings of shame, anger, and guilt (B) is the most appropriate intervention for acute depression as it helps address core emotions that may be contributing to the condition. Focusing on these emotions can aid the client in processing and coping with their feelings. Ensuring that the client's day is filled with group activities (A) might overwhelm the client, as they may not be ready for social interactions during this sensitive time. Allowing the client to initiate and determine activities of daily living (C) is more suitable for chronic cases where the client needs to regain autonomy. Encouraging the client to explore the rationale for his depression (D) is less effective in acute cases, as the focus should be on immediate emotional support and understanding rather than cognitive analysis.
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Question 6
A nurse is working with a patient who has a history of chronic pain. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate for managing the patient's pain?
A. Encouraging the patient to avoid exercise to prevent further injury
B. Recommending alternative therapies such as acupuncture
C. Administering pain medication as prescribed and evaluating effectiveness
D. Providing distractions such as television and music
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Administering pain medication as prescribed and evaluating effectiveness. This is the most appropriate intervention because it directly addresses the patient's chronic pain by providing relief through medication. By following the prescribed dosage, the nurse can ensure the patient's safety and effectiveness of the treatment. Monitoring the patient's response to the medication allows for adjustments if needed.
Choice A is incorrect because avoiding exercise may worsen the patient's pain by leading to muscle stiffness and reduced mobility. Choice B, recommending alternative therapies like acupuncture, may be beneficial but it may not address the immediate need for pain relief. Choice D, providing distractions, may offer temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause of the chronic pain.
The nurse has just admitted Nancy to the psychiatric unit. The psychiatrist has diagnosed Nancy with major depressive disorder. The nurse says to Nancy, 'Some changes will have to be made in your behavior. I care about what happens to you.' Which nursing role described by Peplau is the nurse fulfilling in this instance?
A. Counselor
B. Surrogate
C. Technical Expert
D. Resource Person
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Surrogate. In this scenario, the nurse is assuming the role of a surrogate, representing the client's best interests and advocating for their well-being. The nurse is showing empathy and support by acknowledging Nancy's need for behavioral changes and expressing care. This aligns with Peplau's concept of the surrogate role, where the nurse acts as a substitute and supports the client's emotional needs.
Choice A (Counselor) is incorrect because the nurse is not providing counseling or therapeutic interventions in this situation. Choice C (Technical Expert) is incorrect as the nurse is not primarily focused on providing technical knowledge or expertise. Choice D (Resource Person) is incorrect because the nurse is not primarily acting as a source of information or support for Nancy in this context.
Based on non-compliance with the medication regimen, an adult client with a medical diagnosis of substance abuse and schizophrenia was recently switched from oral fluphenazine HCl (Prolixin) to IM fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate). What is most important to teach the client and family about this change in medication regimen?
A. Signs and symptoms of extrapyramidal effects (EPS).
B. Information about substance abuse and schizophrenia.
C. The effects of alcohol and drug interaction.
D. The availability of support groups for those with dual diagnoses.
Correct answer:
Teaching about the effects of alcohol and drug interaction is crucial to prevent adverse reactions, especially with the long-acting injectable form of fluphenazine. Understanding how alcohol and drugs can interact with the medication will help the client and family to ensure medication effectiveness and avoid potential harmful effects. Choices A, B, and D are not the most important to teach in this scenario. While knowing the signs and symptoms of extrapyramidal effects (EPS) is important, understanding the effects of alcohol and drug interaction is more critical in this specific situation. Information about substance abuse and schizophrenia, as well as the availability of support groups, are essential aspects of care but are not the primary focus when switching to a long-acting injectable medication due to non-compliance.
A nurse counsels a patient on ways to determine the person's total sleep requirement. Which instruction would produce the most accurate results?
A. For 1 full week, record what you remember about your dream content and related feelings as soon as you wake up. Bring the record to your next appointment.Â
B. While off work for 1 week, go to bed at your usual time and wake up without an alarm. Record how many hours you sleep and then average the findings.Â
C. For 2 full weeks, record how much time you sleep each night and rate your daytime alertness on a scale of 1 to 10. Calculate your average alertness score.Â
D. All adults need 7 or 8 hours of sleep to function properly. Let's design ways to help you reach that goal.Â
Correct answer:
Rationale:
1. By going to bed at the usual time, the patient maintains their regular sleep schedule, minimizing external factors that could affect sleep duration.
2. Waking up without an alarm allows the patient's body to naturally wake up, indicating when they have had sufficient rest.
3. Recording the hours slept for a week and calculating the average provides a more accurate estimate of their total sleep requirement.
4. This method is practical, easy to follow, and directly measures the individual's sleep needs.
Summary of other choices:
A: Dream content and related feelings do not directly measure sleep requirement.
C: Alertness rating may fluctuate due to other factors, not solely sleep duration.
D: Prescribing a fixed amount of sleep for all adults does not account for individual variability in sleep needs.
Arnold, a 19-year-old client with a mild concussion is discharged from the emergency department. Before discharge, he complains of a headache. When offered acetaminophen, his mother tells the nurse the headache is severe and she would like her son to have something stronger. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
A. "Your son had a mild concussion, acetaminophen is strong enough."Â
B. "Aspirin is avoided because of the danger of Reye's syndrome in children or young adults."Â
C. "Narcotics are avoided after a head injury because they may hide a worsening condition."Â
D. Stronger medications may lead to vomiting, which increases the intracarnial pressure (ICP)."Â
Correct answer:
The correct response is C: "Narcotics are avoided after a head injury because they may hide a worsening condition."
Rationale:
1. Narcotics can mask symptoms of a worsening condition, such as increased intracranial pressure, by providing pain relief without addressing the underlying issue. This can delay appropriate medical intervention.
2. Acetaminophen is a suitable option for mild headaches and poses a lower risk of masking symptoms compared to narcotics.
3. Aspirin (option B) is contraindicated due to the risk of Reye's syndrome in young adults with viral illnesses.
4. Option D is incorrect as vomiting itself does not necessarily lead to increased intracranial pressure; strong medications may have various side effects, but the primary concern is the potential for masking symptoms with narcotics in this scenario.
Which action reflects therapeutic practices associated with operant conditioning?
A. Encouraging a parent to read to their children to foster a love for learning.
B. Encouraging a patient to make daily journal entries describing their feelings.
C. Suggesting to a new mother that she spend time cuddling her newborn often during the day.
D. Acknowledging a patient who is often verbally aggressive for complimenting a picture another patient drew.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because it reflects the principles of operant conditioning by utilizing positive reinforcement. By acknowledging the verbally aggressive patient for complimenting another patient's drawing, you are reinforcing a positive behavior (complimenting) to increase the likelihood of it recurring. This aligns with operant conditioning's concept of reinforcing desired behaviors to promote learning and behavior change.
Choices A, B, and C do not directly reflect operant conditioning principles. A focuses on promoting a love for learning through reading, which is more related to classical conditioning. B involves journaling to express feelings, which is more aligned with cognitive-behavioral therapy. C suggests cuddling a newborn, which is more about bonding and attachment rather than operant conditioning.
Which assessment findings are likely for an individual who recently injected heroin?
A. Anxiety, restlessness, paranoid delusions.
B. Muscle aching, dilated pupils, tachycardia.
C. Heightened sexuality, insomnia, euphoria.
D. Drowsiness, constricted pupils, slurred speech.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because injecting heroin typically leads to drowsiness, constricted pupils, and slurred speech due to its depressant effects on the central nervous system. Heroin acts as a sedative, causing drowsiness and slowing down brain function. Constricted pupils, known as pinpoint pupils, are a common physical sign of heroin use. Slurred speech may occur due to the drug's impact on coordination and muscle control.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Anxiety, restlessness, paranoid delusions are more commonly associated with stimulant drugs like cocaine or amphetamines.
B: Muscle aching, dilated pupils, tachycardia are more indicative of stimulant drug use rather than heroin.
C: Heightened sexuality, insomnia, euphoria are effects more commonly seen with stimulant drugs or hallucinogens, not heroin.
A registered nurse is caring for an older male who reports depressive symptoms since his wife of 54 years died suddenly. He cries, maintains closed body posture, and avoids eye contact. Which nursing action describes attending behavior?
A. Reminding the patient gently that he will 'feel better over time'
B. Using a soft tone of voice for questioning
C. Sitting with the patient and taking cues for when to talk or when to remain silent
D. Offering medication and bereavement services
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because sitting with the patient and taking cues for when to talk or remain silent demonstrates attending behavior. This approach allows the nurse to provide emotional support by being present and actively listening to the patient's needs without imposing advice or solutions. This nonverbal communication can help the patient feel understood and cared for during a difficult time.
Choice A is incorrect because it minimizes the patient's feelings and suggests a quick fix rather than acknowledging and addressing the underlying emotions. Choice B is also incorrect as using a soft tone of voice is important but does not fully encompass attending behavior. Choice D is incorrect as offering medication and bereavement services is premature without first connecting with the patient on an emotional level.
A client states she is hearing voices that tell her to cut herself. She already has several superficial marks on her wrists from scratching herself with the plastic eating utensils. She will not contract for safety. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Remove the plastic eating utensils from the unit.
B. Conduct 15-minute checks so she will not get the one-on-one attention she seeks.
C. Place on one-on-one, constant observation to ensure she does not harm herself.
D. Obtain an order for seclusion until she denies suicidal intent.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Place on one-on-one, constant observation to ensure she does not harm herself. This is the priority nursing intervention because the client is at high risk for self-harm, as evidenced by hearing voices telling her to cut herself and already having marks on her wrists. Since she will not contract for safety, one-on-one observation is necessary to prevent harm. Removing plastic utensils (choice A) may not be sufficient to prevent self-harm. Conducting 15-minute checks (choice B) is not appropriate given the level of risk. Seclusion (choice D) is a restrictive intervention and should only be used as a last resort when less restrictive measures are insufficient. Constant observation ensures immediate intervention if self-harm is attempted, making it the most appropriate intervention in this scenario.
A patient with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing flashbacks. What is the most appropriate initial nursing intervention?
A. Encourage the patient to talk briefly about the traumatic event.
B. Reassure the patient that they are safe and the event is not happening now.
C. Administer a sedative medication as prescribed.
D. Suggest the patient write about their feelings in a journal.
Correct answer:
During a flashback, the patient may feel as though the traumatic event is reoccurring. Reassuring the patient that they are safe and the event is not happening presently can help ground them in reality and reduce anxiety. This approach can provide a sense of safety and security, which is crucial in managing flashbacks associated with PTSD. Encouraging the patient to talk briefly about the traumatic event may worsen the distress during a flashback by intensifying the re-experiencing of the trauma. Administering sedative medication should not be the initial intervention, as non-pharmacological approaches are preferred in managing flashbacks. Suggesting the patient write about their feelings in a journal may be beneficial as part of ongoing therapy, but it is not the most appropriate initial intervention during a flashback.
LPN exams mental health practice questions, set 16 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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