You choose the therapeutic response, the safety priority, and the cue that means the patient is getting worse. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five mental health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
In cognitive processing therapy for PTSD, what is the primary goal for the patient?
A. To help the patient process the trauma and reduce avoidance behaviors.
B. To help the patient confront and process the trauma in a safe environment.
C. To help the patient understand the impact of the trauma on their current thoughts and behaviors.
D. To help the patient avoid triggers that remind them of the trauma.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — To help the patient understand the impact of the trauma on their current thoughts and behaviors.
The correct answer is C because the primary goal of cognitive processing therapy in PTSD is to help the patient understand the impact of trauma on their current thoughts and behaviors. This involves identifying and challenging maladaptive beliefs and cognitive distortions related to the trauma. By gaining insight into how the trauma has influenced their thoughts and behaviors, the patient can work towards changing these patterns and improving their psychological well-being.
Choice A is incorrect because while processing the trauma and reducing avoidance behaviors are important aspects of therapy, they are not the primary goal in cognitive processing therapy. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on confronting and processing the trauma, missing the crucial component of understanding its impact on thoughts and behaviors. Choice D is incorrect because avoidance of triggers is not the primary goal; rather, it is about addressing and modifying the cognitive responses to those triggers.
Question 2
A client on the mental health unit is becoming more agitated, shouting at the staff, and pacing in the hallway. When a PRN medication is offered, the client refuses the medication and defiantly sits on the floor in the middle of the unit hallway. What nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Transport the client to the seclusion room.
B. Quietly approach the client with additional staff members.
C. Take other clients in the area to the client lounge.
D. Administer medication to chemically restrain the client.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Take other clients in the area to the client lounge.
The correct answer is C: Take other clients in the area to the client lounge. This intervention prioritizes the safety and well-being of both the agitated client and other clients in the unit. By removing other clients from the potentially escalating situation, the nurse can prevent further agitation or harm. This intervention also allows the client some space and privacy to calm down without an audience, potentially reducing their agitation.
Incorrect choices:
A: Transport the client to the seclusion room - This is a restrictive measure and should only be used as a last resort for safety reasons.
B: Quietly approach the client with additional staff members - Approaching an agitated client may escalate the situation, especially if the client is refusing medication.
D: Administer medication to chemically restrain the client - Chemical restraint should only be used as a last resort and must follow specific protocols and guidelines. It should not be the first intervention attempted.
Question 3
A nurse is assessing a client for major depressive disorder (MDD). Which of the following is a common symptom of MDD?
A. Increased interest in activities.
B. Weight gain of 3% in a month.
C. Excessive guilt and self-blame.
D. Elevated mood and increased energy.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Excessive guilt and self-blame.
Choice A rationale: Increased interest in activities is not consistent with the clinical presentation of MDD. In fact, a hallmark symptom of MDD is anhedonia, which involves a reduced interest or pleasure in most activities. Choice B rationale: Weight gain is not typically associated with MDD. In contrast, significant changes in appetite and weight loss are more common symptoms, often accompanied by feelings of worthlessness or guilt related to body image. Choice C rationale: Excessive guilt and self-blame are common cognitive and emotional symptoms of MDD. Individuals with MDD tend to have a negative self-perception. Choice D rationale: Elevated mood and increased energy are actually more indicative of conditions like bipolar disorder or manic episodes, where there are distinct periods of abnormally elevated mood, known as mania or hypomania. [Note: Original question was 'Select All That Apply' with answers C and D; restructured to single-answer format focusing on a common symptom.]
Question 4
A child known as the neighborhood bully says, 'Nobody can tell me what to do.' After receiving a poor grade on a science project, this child secretly loaded a virus on the teacher's computer. These behaviors support a diagnosis of
A. CD.
B. ODD.
C. intermittent explosive disorder.
D. ADHD.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — ODD.
The correct answer is B: Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD). ODD is characterized by a pattern of hostile and defiant behavior towards authority figures. In this scenario, the child's refusal to follow rules and defiance of authority by saying 'Nobody can tell me what to do' aligns with ODD. Additionally, the act of secretly loading a virus on the teacher's computer as a form of revenge is a manifestation of the vindictive and spiteful nature often seen in individuals with ODD.
Incorrect choices:
A: CD (Conduct Disorder) typically involves more serious and persistent antisocial behavior, such as aggression towards people or animals, destruction of property, and violation of rules.
C: Intermittent Explosive Disorder is characterized by recurrent outbursts of aggression that are disproportionate to the situation. This child's behavior is more planned and targeted.
D: ADHD (Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder) does not account for the deliberate and calculated nature of the
Question 5
A nurse is assessing a child with suspected abuse. Which factor is essential during the nursing assessment of child abuse?
A. Using leading and suggestive questions.
B. Conducting the assessment in a public place.
C. Involving the child's peers in the assessment process.
D. Performing the assessment in a safe and private environment.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Performing the assessment in a safe and private environment.
Choice A rationale: 'Using leading and suggestive questions.' - These should be avoided during the nursing assessment of child abuse as they can compromise the accuracy of the information gathered. Choice B rationale: 'Conducting the assessment in a public place.' - This is not ideal as it can lead to discomfort for the child and inhibit open communication. Privacy is crucial to create a safe space where the child can share their experiences without fear. Choice C rationale: 'Involving the child's peers in the assessment process.' - This might not be appropriate, as discussing potential abuse in the presence of peers could cause embarrassment or pressure the child to withhold information. Choice D rationale: 'Performing the assessment in a safe and private environment.' - This is essential to ensure that the child feels comfortable and secure while discussing their experiences of abuse. This setting encourages honest communication and allows the nurse to gather accurate information.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
While being treated in an inpatient facility, what is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with anorexia nervosa?
A. Allowing the patient to eat alone to reduce stress
B. Monitoring the patient's weight daily
C. Encouraging the patient to exercise daily
D. Providing the patient with a high-calorie diet
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Monitoring the patient's weight daily. This intervention is crucial in managing anorexia nervosa as it helps track the patient's progress and identify any concerning weight fluctuations promptly. Daily weight monitoring allows healthcare providers to adjust treatment plans accordingly and ensure the patient's safety.
Choice A: Allowing the patient to eat alone to reduce stress is incorrect because isolation during meals can exacerbate the patient's disordered eating behaviors and hinder the recovery process.
Choice C: Encouraging the patient to exercise daily is incorrect as excessive exercise is a common symptom of anorexia nervosa and can further contribute to the patient's physical and psychological health risks.
Choice D: Providing the patient with a high-calorie diet is incorrect without proper monitoring as it can lead to refeeding syndrome and other complications. Monitoring the patient's weight is essential before implementing dietary changes.
A nurse is evaluating the progress of a client who has adjustment disorder with mixed disturbance of emotions and conduct. The nurse determines that the client makes which of the following statements indicating improvement?
A. I don't care what happens to me anymore.'
B. I still miss my old life, but I'm trying to move on.'
C. I'm so angry at everyone who caused this to happen.'
D. I feel like nothing will ever change for the better.'
Correct answer:
Choice A rationale: The statement 'I don't care what happens to me anymore' indicates a lack of improvement in adjustment disorder. Improvement involves a more positive outlook. Choice B rationale: This statement reflects the client's acknowledgment of missing their old life but actively attempting to move forward. This signifies progress in dealing with the emotional and conduct disturbances often seen in adjustment disorder. Choice C rationale: 'I'm so angry at everyone who caused this to happen' indicates ongoing anger and blame towards others, which may suggest a lack of resolution in the emotional turmoil associated with adjustment disorder. Improvement typically involves a reduction in intense negative emotions. Choice D rationale: 'I feel like nothing will ever change for the better' represents a pessimistic and hopeless perspective, indicating that the client does not perceive any potential for improvement. This mindset does not align with progress in adjustment disorder.
A patient with antisocial personality disorder suddenly gets angry at a staff nurse for not being allowed in the staff lounge. How should the nurse respond?
A. Stay calm and quiet and offer a PRN anxiolytic
B. Tell the patient to calm down and lead them to their room
C. Enforce the limit calmly but firmly, and redirect the patient to another activity
D. Calm the patient by gentle and caring touch
Correct answer:
The nurse may encounter much resistance from a patient with antisocial personality disorder. It is best not to engage this patient in power struggles or debates about the rules. Redirection to another activity (such as watching TV or going to the recreation room) may help avoid an argument at the nurse's station. Consistent limit setting is necessary, but this should be done in a non-confrontational way when possible. Showing patience and willingness to explain rules and consequences will help to establish a functional and therapeutic relationship. Actions such as calming the patient and leading them to their room will not be effective in patients with antisocial personality disorder. They often show acting-out behavior and can be manipulative or aggressive if they feel threatened. PRN anxiolytics are not the appropriate first action for an argumentative or distressed patient and should be reserved for after other methods of problem solving and coping skills have been utilized.
A patient has dementia. The health care provider wants to make a differential diagnosis between Alzheimer disease and multiple infarctions. Which diagnostic procedure should a nurse expect to prepare the patient for first?
A. Computed tomography (CT) scan
B. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
C. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
D. Single-photon–emission computed tomography (SPECT) scan
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Computed tomography (CT) scan. In this scenario, a CT scan would be most appropriate as it can quickly identify signs of multiple infarctions, such as ischemic strokes, which can present similarly to dementia. A CT scan provides detailed images of the brain's structure, allowing for visualization of infarcts and helping differentiate between Alzheimer's disease and multiple infarctions.
Reasons why other choices are incorrect:
B: Positron emission tomography (PET) scan - PET scans are used to detect metabolic changes in the brain, which may not be as helpful in distinguishing between Alzheimer's disease and multiple infarctions.
C: Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) - fMRI measures brain activity and may not be as effective in identifying structural abnormalities associated with infarctions.
D: Single-photon–emission computed tomography (SPECT) scan - SPECT scans are useful for evaluating blood flow in the brain but may not provide
You teach Mr. R’s sister about important precautions associated with a new prescription. Afterward, she accurately summarizes major self-management strategies associated with this drug. Which step of the nursing process applies to her summarization?
A. Assessment
B. Analysis
C. Planning/outcomes identification
D. Evaluation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Evaluation. Evaluation is the step in the nursing process where the nurse assesses the client's response to interventions and determines if the goals and outcomes have been met. In this scenario, the sister's accurate summarization of major self-management strategies shows that she understood the information provided by the nurse, which indicates successful teaching. This aligns with the evaluation step as it involves determining the effectiveness of the teaching intervention.
Choice A: Assessment is incorrect because assessment involves collecting data about the client's health status, which is not demonstrated by the sister's summarization.
Choice B: Analysis is incorrect as it involves interpreting and synthesizing data, which is not the focus of the sister's summarization.
Choice C: Planning/outcomes identification is incorrect as it involves setting goals and outcomes, which have already been done prior to the sister's summarization.
A mother of a 1-month-old infant asks the nurse why it takes so long for infants to learn to roll over. The nurse knows that the reason for this is:
A. A demyelinating process must be occurring with her infant.
B. Myelin is needed to conduct the impulses, and the neurons of a newborn are not yet myelinated.
C. The cerebral cortex is not fully developed; therefore, control over motor function gradually occurs.
D. The spinal cord is controlling the movement because the cerebellum is not yet fully developed.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Myelin is needed to conduct the impulses, and the neurons of a newborn are not yet myelinated. Myelin is a fatty substance that insulates nerve fibers, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses. In newborns, the process of myelination is incomplete, which means that the nerve impulses responsible for coordinating the complex movement required for rolling over are slower and less efficient. This delay in myelination is a normal part of infant development and accounts for the time it takes for infants to learn to roll over.
Choice A is incorrect because demyelination refers to the loss of myelin, which is not the case in infants. Choice C is incorrect because while the cerebral cortex plays a role in motor function, the lack of myelination in newborns is the primary reason for the delay in rolling over. Choice D is incorrect because the cerebellum is not solely responsible for the movement, and the lack of myelination
A nurse is caring for a patient who is recovering from a stroke. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate to promote the patient's rehabilitation?
A. Encouraging the patient to perform activities of daily living independently
B. Promoting a high-protein diet to aid recovery
C. Providing support with mobility and communication as needed
D. Focusing on the patient's past abilities to encourage progress
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Providing support with mobility and communication as needed. This is the most appropriate intervention to promote the patient's rehabilitation after a stroke. Supporting the patient with mobility exercises and communication helps improve physical and cognitive function, which are crucial aspects of stroke recovery. By assisting with mobility, the nurse can help prevent complications such as muscle weakness or contractures. Communication support can aid in language recovery and overall cognitive function.
Incorrect choices:
A: Encouraging independence in activities of daily living may be important, but focusing solely on this aspect may not address the specific needs of stroke recovery.
B: While a high-protein diet can be beneficial for recovery, it is not the most crucial intervention for promoting rehabilitation after a stroke.
D: Focusing on past abilities alone may not address the current limitations and needs of the patient post-stroke.
A nurse is conducting a health history interview with a client who has adjustment disorder with anxiety. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask to assess the client's coping skills?
A. How do you usually deal with stressful situations?'
B. What are some of the sources of stress in your life?'
C. How often do you exercise or engage in physical activity?'
D. What are some of the goals that you have for yourself?'
Correct answer:
Choice A rationale: Inquiring about the client's typical coping mechanisms provides insight into their ability to manage stressors effectively. This information helps the nurse tailor interventions and support strategies to enhance the client's coping skills. Choice B rationale: Identifying the sources of stress in the client's life is essential in understanding the triggers that contribute to their adjustment disorder with anxiety, but it does not directly assess coping skills. Choice C rationale: While physical activity and exercise can contribute to overall mental well-being, it might not be the primary focus when assessing coping skills for adjustment disorder with anxiety. Choice D rationale: Exploring the client's goals can shed light on their motivations and aspirations, but it does not directly evaluate how they cope with stress. Note: This was originally a multiple-answer question; it has been restructured to focus on the most direct assessment of coping skills.
Medical records are considered legal documents. Proper documentation needs to reflect patient condition along with changes. It should also be based on professional standards designated by the state board of nursing, regulatory agencies, and reimbursement requirements. Proper documentation can be enhanced by:
A. Only using objective data
B. Using the nursing process as a guide
C. Using language the specific patient can understand
D. Avoiding legal jargon
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Using the nursing process as a guide. Proper documentation in medical records requires following a systematic approach like the nursing process, which includes assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation. This ensures a comprehensive and organized documentation of the patient's condition and any changes. Using the nursing process helps healthcare providers to accurately document the patient's status and care provided.
Choice A: Only using objective data is incorrect because proper documentation should include both objective (observable) and subjective (patient-reported) data for a holistic view of the patient's condition.
Choice C: Using language the specific patient can understand is important for effective communication but not directly related to enhancing proper documentation.
Choice D: Avoiding legal jargon is important to ensure clarity and understanding but does not directly enhance the documentation process.
During an interview with a non-English-speaking middle-aged woman recently diagnosed with major depression, the patient's husband states, 'She is happy now and doing very well.' The patient, however, sits motionless, looking at the floor, and wringing her hands. A professional interpreter would provide better information due to the fact that a family member in the interpreter role may: Select all that apply.
A. Be too close to accurately capture the meaning of the patient's mood.
B. Censor the patient's thoughts or words.
C. Avoid interpretation.
D. Leave out unsavory details.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Censor the patient's thoughts or words. This is because a family member in the interpreter role may unintentionally filter or alter the patient's words or emotions to protect the family or maintain harmony. This could lead to crucial information being missed or misinterpreted by the healthcare provider. In a sensitive situation like a mental health assessment, it is important for the interpreter to accurately convey the patient's true thoughts and feelings without bias or censorship.
A: Be too close to accurately capture the meaning of the patient's mood - While this could be a potential concern, the main issue with a family member as an interpreter lies in the risk of censorship.
C: Avoid interpretation - This would defeat the purpose of having an interpreter present in the first place.
D: Leave out unsavory details - While this could also be a risk, the primary concern is the potential censorship of the patient's thoughts or words.
LPN exams mental health practice questions, set 6 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
