LPN exams mental health practice questions, set 15
LPN exams · mental health
LPN exams mental health practice questionsset 15
You choose the therapeutic response, the safety priority, and the cue that means the patient is getting worse. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five mental health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The parent of an adolescent with schizophrenia asks a nurse, 'My child’s doctor ordered a positron-emission tomography (PET) scan. What is that?' Select the nurse’s best reply.
A. PET uses a magnetic field and gamma waves to identify problems areas in the brain. Does your teenager have any metal implants?'
B. It’s a special type of x-ray image that shows structures of the brain and whether a brain injury has ever occurred.'
C. PET is a scan that passes an electrical current through the brain and shows brain wave activity. PET can help diagnose seizures.'
D. PET is a special scan that shows blood flow and activity in the brain.'
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — PET is a special scan that shows blood flow and activity in the brain.'
The correct answer is D: PET is a special scan that shows blood flow and activity in the brain.
Rationale:
1. PET scans use a radioactive substance injected into the bloodstream to highlight areas of high metabolic activity in the brain.
2. This helps in assessing brain function by showing how well different areas of the brain are working.
3. It is commonly used in diagnosing conditions like schizophrenia to observe brain activity patterns that may indicate the presence of the disorder.
Summary:
A: Incorrect - PET does not use a magnetic field or gamma waves and does not rely on metal implants.
B: Incorrect - PET is not an x-ray image and does not specifically show structures or past brain injuries.
C: Incorrect - PET does not pass an electrical current or measure brain wave activity; it focuses on blood flow and metabolic activity.
Question 2
The World Health Organization describes health as 'a state of complete physical, mental, and social wellbeing and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.' Which statement is true in regards to overall health? Select all that apply.
A. There is no relationship between physical and mental health.
B. Poor physical health can lead to mental distress and disorders.
C. Poor mental health does not lead to physical illness.
D. There is a strong relationship between physical health and mental health.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Poor physical health can lead to mental distress and disorders.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. The World Health Organization defines health as a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being.
2. Poor physical health can impact mental health through increased stress, anxiety, and depression.
3. Research shows a bidirectional relationship between physical and mental health.
4. Neglecting physical health can lead to poor mental well-being and vice versa.
5. Choice B is true as it aligns with the holistic view of health by acknowledging the interconnectedness of physical and mental well-being.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect as there is a strong relationship between physical and mental health.
- Choice C is incorrect as poor mental health can lead to physical illness.
- Choice D is incorrect as it does not acknowledge the bidirectional relationship between physical and mental health.
Question 3
Which behaviors indicate the child's parents are mourning ineffectively? (Select all that apply)
A. They keep a place set for the deceased child at the family dinner table.
B. They throw flowers on the lake at each anniversary date of the accident.
C. They have a prayer service every year on the anniversary of the death of the child.
D. They sealed their child's room and will not allow anyone to change it.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — They sealed their child's room and will not allow anyone to change it.
The correct answer is D because sealing the child's room and not allowing anyone to change it indicates a refusal to accept the reality of the child's death, hindering the mourning process. This behavior can lead to prolonged grief and prevent the parents from moving forward in their grieving journey.
A: Keeping a place set for the deceased child at the family dinner table can be a way for the parents to remember and honor the child, which may not necessarily indicate ineffective mourning.
B: Throwing flowers on the lake at each anniversary date of the accident is a symbolic gesture of remembrance and can be a healthy way for parents to express their grief.
C: Having a prayer service every year on the anniversary of the child's death is a common practice for many individuals grieving and does not necessarily indicate ineffective mourning.
Question 4
What is the primary benefit of using exposure therapy for patients with phobias?
A. To eliminate the phobia completely
B. To gradually reduce the patient's fear and anxiety
C. To teach the patient relaxation techniques
D. To provide immediate relief from anxiety
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — To gradually reduce the patient's fear and anxiety
The primary benefit of using exposure therapy for patients with phobias is to gradually reduce the patient's fear and anxiety. Exposure therapy involves exposing the individual to the feared object or situation in a controlled manner to help them confront their fears and learn that the perceived threat is not as harmful as initially believed. Over time, repeated exposure can lead to a decrease in anxiety and fear responses, helping the individual manage and overcome their phobia. Choice A is incorrect because exposure therapy aims to reduce fear and anxiety, not necessarily eliminate the phobia completely. Choice C is incorrect as although relaxation techniques might be part of the therapy, the primary goal is fear reduction. Choice D is incorrect as exposure therapy typically involves gradual exposure rather than providing immediate relief.
Question 5
While the nurse is taking the history of a 68-year-old patient who sustained a head injury 3 days earlier, he tells the nurse that he is on a cruise ship and is 30 years old. The nurse knows that this finding is indicative of a(n):
A. Great sense of humor.
B. Uncooperative behavior.
C. Inability to understand questions.
D. Decreased level of consciousness.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Decreased level of consciousness.
The correct answer is D: Decreased level of consciousness. The patient's confusion about his age and location after a head injury indicates disorientation, a classic sign of altered mental status. This is likely due to the head injury affecting his brain function, leading to impaired cognitive abilities. This finding raises concern for decreased level of consciousness, as the patient is unable to accurately perceive his age or location.
Summary:
A: Great sense of humor - This choice is incorrect as the patient's response is not a deliberate attempt at humor.
B: Uncooperative behavior - This choice is incorrect as the patient's response is not indicative of intentional noncompliance.
C: Inability to understand questions - This choice is incorrect as the patient's response suggests more than just a simple misunderstanding of questions.
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Question 6
The therapeutic approach in the care of an autistic child includes the following EXCEPT:
A. Engage in diversionary activities when acting-out
B. Provide an atmosphere of acceptance
C. Provide safety measures
D. Rearrange the environment to activate the child
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because rearranging the environment to activate the child is not a recommended therapeutic approach for caring for an autistic child. Autistic children may struggle with changes in their environment, so rearranging it could lead to increased stress and anxiety, rather than therapeutic benefits.
A: Engaging in diversionary activities when acting-out can help redirect behavior and provide a positive outlet for emotions.
B: Providing an atmosphere of acceptance fosters a sense of security and belonging for the child.
C: Providing safety measures is crucial to ensure the well-being of the child and prevent any harm.
In summary, D is incorrect as it could potentially disrupt the child's sense of stability, while A, B, and C are all important aspects of the therapeutic approach in caring for an autistic child.
A nurse is providing education to parents about a primary prevention strategy for reactive attachment disorder (RAD). Which of the following should the nurse recommend?
A. Teaching the child about attachment and its types.
B. Providing therapy to the child after signs of RAD are observed.
C. Offering support groups to children who have been exposed to abuse.
D. Educating caregivers about the importance of consistent bonding.
Correct answer:
Choice A rationale: Teaching the child about attachment and its types can promote awareness but is less effective as a primary prevention strategy compared to caregiver-focused interventions. Choice B rationale: Providing therapy to the child after signs of RAD are observed is a secondary intervention, not primary prevention, as it addresses the disorder after it develops. Choice C rationale: Offering support groups to children who have been exposed to abuse is a valuable strategy but targets children already at risk, making it less of a universal primary prevention approach. Choice D rationale: Educating caregivers about the importance of consistent bonding is a crucial primary prevention strategy. Healthy attachment bonds formed through consistent care can prevent the onset of RAD by addressing the root cause before symptoms emerge.
A client diagnosed with bipolar I disorder is distraught over insomnia experienced over the past 3 nights and a 12-lb weight loss over the past 2 weeks. Which should be this client's priority nursing diagnosis?
A. Knowledge deficit related to (R/T) bipolar disorder as evidenced by (AEB) concern about symptoms
B. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements R/T hyperactivity AEB weight loss
C. Risk for suicide R/T powerlessness AEB insomnia and anorexia
D. Altered sleep patterns R/T mania AEB insomnia for the past 3 nights
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Altered nutrition: less than body requirements R/T hyperactivity AEB weight loss. The client's weight loss and hyperactivity indicate a potential imbalance between energy intake and expenditure, leading to altered nutrition. This should be the priority nursing diagnosis as it directly addresses the client's physical health and well-being.
Choice A is incorrect because the client's primary concern is not knowledge deficit but rather the physical symptoms of weight loss and insomnia.
Choice C is incorrect as the client's distress over insomnia and weight loss does not directly indicate immediate risk for suicide.
Choice D is incorrect as altered sleep patterns related to mania may be a contributing factor to the insomnia, but the weight loss is a more critical issue that needs immediate attention.
A nurse is collecting data during the nursing assessment of a child with Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder (DSED). Which component should be included in the assessment?
A. Family history of mental health disorders.
B. Recent changes in caregivers.
C. Physical examination.
D. Childhood experiences of comfort.
Correct answer:
Choice A rationale: Family history of mental health disorders is relevant but not the most critical component specific to DSED assessment, as it focuses more on genetic predisposition than immediate triggers. Choice B rationale: Recent changes in caregivers should be assessed. Children with DSED are particularly sensitive to changes in their caregiving environment, which can exacerbate their symptoms or trigger their indiscriminate attachment behaviors, making this a key component. Choice C rationale: Physical examination is relevant in a general medical assessment, but it is not directly related to assessing Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder (DSED) specifically. Choice D rationale: Childhood experiences of comfort are important but are less immediate than recent caregiver changes in understanding current DSED manifestations.
When should a nurse be most alert to the possibility of communication errors resulting in harm to the patient?
A. Change of shift report
B. Admission interviews
C. One-to-one conversations with patients
D. Conversations with patient families
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A, change of shift report, because it is a critical time when patient information is being transferred between nurses, and any miscommunication can lead to errors in patient care. During this time, details about medications, treatments, and patient conditions are being exchanged, making it crucial for the nurse to be alert to prevent any potential harm to the patient.
Choice B, admission interviews, may also be important for gathering accurate patient information, but the level of detail and criticality of communication errors during shift change is higher.
Choices C and D, one-to-one conversations with patients and conversations with patient families, are important communication opportunities, but they may not carry the same level of risk for errors resulting in harm as the change of shift report does.
A male hospital employee is pushed out of the way by a female employee because of an oncoming gurney. The pushed employee becomes very angry and swings at the female employee. Both employees are referred for counseling with the staff psychiatric nurse. Which factor in the pushed employee's history is most related to the reaction that occurred?
A. Is worried about losing his job to a woman
B. Tortured animals as a child
C. Was physically abused by his mother
D. Hates to be touched by anyone
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: 'Was physically abused by his mother.' A history of physical abuse can lead to heightened responses to physical contact. In this scenario, the employee's reaction of becoming very angry and swinging at the female employee after being pushed may be influenced by past experiences of physical abuse. This history can contribute to increased sensitivity to physical interactions and may trigger defensive or aggressive responses. Choices A, B, and D are less directly related to the employee's reaction in this specific context. While worrying about losing his job to a woman could contribute to underlying stress or insecurity, torturing animals as a child reflects a different type of behavioral issue, and hating to be touched by anyone suggests personal boundaries unrelated to the observed behavior in this scenario.
Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient in the manic phase of bipolar disorder?
A. Providing a calm, structured environment
B. Encouraging the patient to express their feelings in a group setting
C. Providing excessive stimulation to decrease agitation
D. Instructing the patient to take a nap when feeling overactive
Correct answer:
The most appropriate intervention for a patient in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is providing a calm, structured environment (Choice A). This is because individuals in the manic phase may exhibit high energy levels, impulsivity, and agitation. A calm environment can help reduce stimulation and promote a sense of stability. Structured routines can also help manage erratic behavior and provide a sense of predictability.
Choice B is incorrect because group settings may exacerbate the patient's symptoms due to increased stimulation. Choice C is inappropriate as excessive stimulation can worsen agitation and may lead to further escalation of manic symptoms. Choice D is not ideal as encouraging a nap may not address the underlying issues of mania and may not be effective in managing the symptoms associated with the manic phase.
Select the best desired outcome for a patient who uses valerian. The patient will report
A. stress level is lower.
B. undisturbed sleep throughout the night.
C. increased interest in recreational activities.
D. early morning waking without an alarm clock.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: undisturbed sleep throughout the night. Valerian is commonly used as an herbal remedy for insomnia and sleep disorders. The desired outcome for a patient using valerian is to achieve improved sleep quality, characterized by uninterrupted and restful sleep throughout the night. This is because valerian has sedative properties that help promote relaxation and induce sleep. Option A is not specific to the intended use of valerian, which is primarily for sleep-related issues. Option C is not directly related to the primary purpose of valerian. Option D, early morning waking without an alarm clock, does not necessarily indicate improved sleep quality and may not be a realistic expectation for all patients. Therefore, option B is the best desired outcome for a patient using valerian to address sleep disturbances.
The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 78-year-old patient. His temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), pulse is 90 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 138/80 mm Hg. The nurse notices that the patient is slightly confused and asks the nurse if she can help him with anything. The nurse should:
A. Recheck the vital signs.
B. Obtain a complete neurologic examination.
C. Administer a sedative to relieve confusion.
D. Monitor for any changes in the patient's condition and assess for dehydration or infection.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D.
1. Monitoring for changes in the patient's condition is crucial to identify any deterioration or improvement.
2. Assessing for dehydration or infection is important as these conditions can cause confusion in elderly patients.
3. Rechecking vital signs may not provide additional information if they are within normal limits.
4. Obtaining a complete neurologic examination is not necessary at this point as the patient's confusion may be due to a more common cause like dehydration or infection.
5. Administering a sedative to relieve confusion is not appropriate without identifying and addressing the underlying cause.
In summary, option D is the best course of action as it focuses on monitoring the patient's condition, assessing for potential causes of confusion, and addressing any underlying issues.
Which of the following interventions is most effective in managing a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
A. Encouraging the patient to engage in repetitive behaviors.
B. Helping the patient to understand that their thoughts are irrational.
C. Providing the patient with a structured daily routine.
D. Allowing the patient to avoid situations that trigger their obsessions.
Correct answer:
The most effective intervention in managing a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is helping the patient to understand that their thoughts are irrational. This cognitive-behavioral approach can assist in reducing the frequency and intensity of obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors by challenging and reframing maladaptive beliefs and thought patterns associated with OCD. Encouraging the patient to engage in repetitive behaviors (choice A) reinforces the compulsive behavior rather than addressing the underlying issue. Providing a structured daily routine (choice C) may help in some cases but does not directly target the irrational thoughts and beliefs. Allowing the patient to avoid trigger situations (choice D) can provide temporary relief but does not address the core problem of irrational thoughts and behaviors.
LPN exams mental health practice questions, set 15 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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