LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 17
LPN exams · medical-surgical
LPN exams medical-surgical practice questionsset 17
You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five medical-surgical questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
When assessing a suspicious skin lesion, you are looking for Aâ€â€asymmetry, Bâ€â€irregular borders, Câ€â€variegated colors, Dâ€â€diameter, and Eâ€â€:
A. Edema.
B. Erythema.
C. Elevation.
D. Ever-changing.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Ever-changing.
The correct answer is D: Ever-changing. When assessing a suspicious skin lesion, the feature of ever-changing is crucial as it indicates the possibility of malignancy or skin cancer. Skin lesions that evolve or change in size, shape, color, or symptoms over time are concerning and require further evaluation. This feature is important for early detection and prompt treatment of skin cancers.
A: Edema is not typically a characteristic feature of a suspicious skin lesion.
B: Erythema refers to redness of the skin and is not specific to assessing skin lesions for malignancy.
C: Elevation may or may not be present in a suspicious skin lesion and is not as significant as the feature of ever-changing.
In summary, the correct answer, D: Ever-changing, is crucial in assessing suspicious skin lesions for possible malignancy, while the other choices are not as indicative of skin cancer.
Question 2
While assessing a client, a nurse detects a bluish tinge to the client's palms, soles, and mucous membranes. Which action should the nurse take next?
A. Ask the client about current medications he or she is taking.
B. Use pulse oximetry to assess the client's oxygen saturation.
C. Auscultate the client's lung fields for adventitious sounds.
D. Palpate the client's bilateral radial and pedal pulses.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Use pulse oximetry to assess the client's oxygen saturation.
The correct answer is B: Use pulse oximetry to assess the client's oxygen saturation. The bluish tinge, known as cyanosis, indicates decreased oxygen saturation in the blood. Using pulse oximetry will provide objective data on the client's oxygen levels. This is crucial in determining the severity of hypoxemia and guiding further interventions.
Choice A: Asking about medications is not the immediate priority when cyanosis is detected. Medications may be relevant but do not address the urgent need for assessing oxygen saturation.
Choice C: Auscultating lung fields is important in assessing respiratory status, but it does not directly address the need to determine the client's oxygen saturation level.
Choice D: Palpating pulses can provide information on perfusion, but it does not directly assess the client's oxygenation status, which is the immediate concern when cyanosis is present.
Question 3
A nurse is providing ongoing care for a client who is positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), and assessment reveals a client with a newly delayed and shortened speech pattern. The client, who previously had no neurological or motor deficits, has forgotten that they are in the hospital and has trouble getting out of bed. Which problem is the client most likely experiencing related to these signs and symptoms?
A. Cryptococcal meningitis
B. Cytomegalovirus retinitis
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Subcortical neurodegenerative disease
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Subcortical neurodegenerative disease
The client is most likely experiencing signs of subcortical neurodegenerative disease. The symptoms of delayed and shortened speech pattern, memory loss, and difficulty with motor skills point towards a subcortical neurological issue affecting the basal ganglia or other subcortical structures. This disease can lead to cognitive and motor deficits, as seen in the client's presentation.
Choice A, Cryptococcal meningitis, typically presents with fever, headache, and neck stiffness, not cognitive and motor deficits. Choice B, Cytomegalovirus retinitis, primarily affects the eyes and vision, not speech and motor skills. Choice C, Peripheral neuropathy, involves damage to peripheral nerves, causing numbness and tingling in extremities, not cognitive and motor impairments.
Therefore, the most likely problem based on the client's signs and symptoms is subcortical neurodegenerative disease.
Question 4
After completing the health history, the nurse assessing the musculoskeletal system will begin by
A. having the patient move the extremities against resistance.
B. feeling for the presence of crepitus during joint movement.
C. observing the patient’s body build and muscle configuration.
D. checking active and passive range of motion for the extremities.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — observing the patient’s body build and muscle configuration.
The correct answer is C because observing the patient's body build and muscle configuration provides initial information about the patient's overall musculoskeletal health. This step allows the nurse to assess for any abnormalities, such as muscle atrophy or asymmetry, which can indicate underlying musculoskeletal issues. It also helps in identifying any deformities or structural abnormalities.
Choice A is incorrect because having the patient move the extremities against resistance comes later in the assessment process to evaluate muscle strength. Choice B is incorrect as feeling for crepitus during joint movement is a specific assessment for joint health and does not address the overall musculoskeletal system. Choice D is incorrect as checking active and passive range of motion for the extremities is typically done after observing the patient's body build and muscle configuration.
Question 5
A patient who has severe refractory psoriasis on the face, neck, and extremities is socially withdrawn because of the appearance of the lesions. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Discuss the possibility of enrolling in a worker-retraining program.
B. Encourage the patient to volunteer to work on community projects.
C. Suggest that the patient use cosmetics to cover the psoriatic lesions.
D. Ask the patient to describe the impact of psoriasis on quality of life.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Ask the patient to describe the impact of psoriasis on quality of life.
The correct answer is D: Ask the patient to describe the impact of psoriasis on quality of life. This is the first action the nurse should take to understand the patient's perspective, feelings, and how psoriasis is affecting their daily life. By doing so, the nurse can assess the severity of the social withdrawal and emotional impact, which can guide further interventions.
Choice A is incorrect because enrolling in a worker-retraining program does not address the immediate social withdrawal and emotional impact due to psoriasis.
Choice B is incorrect as encouraging the patient to volunteer for community projects may not be suitable or effective in addressing the patient's current emotional distress.
Choice C is incorrect because suggesting cosmetics to cover the lesions only focuses on the physical appearance and does not address the underlying emotional and social issues.
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Question 6
The nurse is teaching a client with glomerulonephritis about self-care. Which dietary recommendations should the nurse encourage the client to follow?
A. Increase intake of high-fiber foods, such as bran cereal
B. Restrict protein intake by limiting meats and other high-protein foods.
C. Limit oral fluid intake to 500ml per day
D. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods such as bananas and cantaloupe.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Restrict protein intake by limiting meats and other high-protein foods. In glomerulonephritis, reducing protein intake helps to lower the workload on the kidneys, as excessive protein can lead to increased production of waste products that the kidneys must filter. This restriction can help prevent further damage to the kidneys. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Increasing high-fiber foods like bran cereal is beneficial for other conditions but not specific to glomerulonephritis. C) Limiting oral fluid intake to 500ml per day is not appropriate as fluid restrictions are usually individualized based on the client's condition and kidney function. D) Increasing potassium-rich foods like bananas and cantaloupe may not be suitable for all clients with glomerulonephritis, as potassium levels can be affected in kidney disease and individual needs may vary.
Which of the functions of the skin is defined as 'water, electrolytes, and nitrogenous wastes are excreted in small amounts of sweat'
A. Protection
B. Sensation
C. Regulation
D. Elimination
Correct answer:
Elimination,' as this function describes the skin's role in excreting water, electrolytes, and nitrogenous wastes through sweat. Sweat glands produce sweat, a mixture containing these substances, aiding in waste removal and electrolyte balance, albeit in small amounts compared to kidneys. 'Protection' refers to the skin's barrier against pathogens and injury, not excretion. 'Sensation' involves nerve endings detecting stimuli, unrelated to waste. 'Regulation' covers temperature control via sweating or vasoconstriction, but the question specifies excretion, not thermoregulation. Elimination uniquely fits, as it's a recognized skin function in physiology, crucial for nursing knowledge in fluid balance and patient assessment e.g., excessive sweating might signal electrolyte loss. This specificity distinguishes 'Elimination' as the precise answer, aligning with the skin's excretory role.
Which of the functions of the skin is defined as 'water, electrolytes, and nitrogenous wastes are excreted in small amounts of sweat'
A. Protection
B. Sensation
C. Regulation
D. Elimination
Correct answer:
Elimination,' as this function describes the skin's role in excreting water, electrolytes, and nitrogenous wastes through sweat. Sweat glands produce sweat, a mixture containing these substances, aiding in waste removal and electrolyte balance, albeit in small amounts compared to kidneys. 'Protection' refers to the skin's barrier against pathogens and injury, not excretion. 'Sensation' involves nerve endings detecting stimuli, unrelated to waste. 'Regulation' covers temperature control via sweating or vasoconstriction, but the question specifies excretion, not thermoregulation. Elimination uniquely fits, as it's a recognized skin function in physiology, crucial for nursing knowledge in fluid balance and patient assessment e.g., excessive sweating might signal electrolyte loss. This specificity distinguishes 'Elimination' as the precise answer, aligning with the skin's excretory role.
Which information obtained during the nurse’s assessment of a patient’s nutritional-metabolic pattern may indicate increased risk for musculoskeletal problems?
A. The patient takes a multivitamin daily.
B. The patient dislikes fruits and vegetables.
C. The patient is 5 ft, 2 in tall and weighs 180 lb.
D. The patient prefers whole milk to nonfat milk.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because the patient being 5 ft, 2 in tall and weighing 180 lb indicates potential obesity, which can increase the risk for musculoskeletal problems. Excess weight puts strain on the bones and joints, leading to conditions like osteoarthritis.
A: Taking a multivitamin daily is generally positive for overall health but does not directly indicate an increased risk for musculoskeletal problems.
B: Disliking fruits and vegetables may point to potential nutritional deficiencies but does not directly indicate musculoskeletal issues.
D: Preferring whole milk over nonfat milk may impact overall nutritional intake but is not directly linked to musculoskeletal problems.
In summary, choice C is correct because obesity is a significant risk factor for musculoskeletal problems, while choices A, B, and D do not directly indicate an increased risk in this context.
D. artery ? lymph node ? efferent lymphatic vessel
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because the flow of lymph through a lymph node draining an infected tissue follows this pathway: afferent lymphatic vessel (brings lymph into the node) ? lymph node (where lymph is filtered) ? efferent lymphatic vessel (carries filtered lymph out of the node). This sequence ensures that lymph containing pathogens or antigens from the infected tissue enters the lymph node for immune response activation and filtering before being circulated back into the bloodstream.
Choice A is incorrect because it reverses the order of the lymphatic vessels, leading to the lymph node first and then out of the node.
Choice B is incorrect because it introduces a venule before the lymph node, which is not part of the typical lymphatic pathway.
Choice D is incorrect because it introduces an artery before the lymph node, which is not part of the lymphatic circulation pathway.
A 35-year-old man presents with difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and regurgitation of undigested food. A barium swallow shows a 'bird beak' appearance of the lower esophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Esophageal cancer
B. Achalasia
C. Peptic stricture
D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Achalasia. The presentation of difficulty swallowing, weight loss, regurgitation of undigested food, and 'bird beak' appearance on barium swallow are classic for achalasia. In achalasia, there is impaired relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter and absent peristalsis in the esophagus. This leads to functional obstruction and dilation of the esophagus, causing the characteristic 'bird beak' appearance.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Esophageal cancer typically presents with progressive dysphagia, weight loss, and may show a mass or stricture on imaging.
C: Peptic stricture is usually seen in patients with long-standing gastroesophageal reflux disease or esophagitis. Symptoms are often related to acid reflux.
D: Gastroesophageal reflux disease commonly presents with heartburn, regurgitation, and chest pain. It does not typically cause weight loss or the 'bird
The HCP prescribed morphine 2 to 5 mg intramuscular (IM) every 2 hours for the client diagnosed with full-thickness burns to the chest and abdominal area reporting pain of 10 on a 1-10 scale. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Administer 5 mg of morphine IM to the client immediately.
B. Contact the HCP to request an increase in the medication.
C. Request a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump for the client.
D. Assess the client for complications and then administer the medication.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Request a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump for the client. This option is appropriate because the client is experiencing severe pain (level 10) due to full-thickness burns, which require consistent pain management. PCA allows the client to self-administer pain medication within safe limits, ensuring adequate pain control. It provides better pain relief compared to intermittent dosing like IM injections every 2 hours. Option A is incorrect because administering 5 mg of morphine immediately may not provide sustained pain relief and could lead to overmedication. Option B is not the best choice as it delays immediate pain relief and does not address the need for continuous pain management. Option D is also not ideal as assessing for complications should not delay pain relief and is not as effective as providing continuous pain control with a PCA pump.
The HCP prescribed morphine 2 to 5 mg intramuscular (IM) every 2 hours for the client diagnosed with full-thickness burns to the chest and abdominal area reporting pain of 10 on a 1-10 scale. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Administer 5 mg of morphine IM to the client immediately.
B. Contact the HCP to request an increase in the medication.
C. Request a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump for the client.
D. Assess the client for complications and then administer the medication.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Request a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump for the client. This option is appropriate because the client is experiencing severe pain (level 10) due to full-thickness burns, which require consistent pain management. PCA allows the client to self-administer pain medication within safe limits, ensuring adequate pain control. It provides better pain relief compared to intermittent dosing like IM injections every 2 hours. Option A is incorrect because administering 5 mg of morphine immediately may not provide sustained pain relief and could lead to overmedication. Option B is not the best choice as it delays immediate pain relief and does not address the need for continuous pain management. Option D is also not ideal as assessing for complications should not delay pain relief and is not as effective as providing continuous pain control with a PCA pump.
A patient who has severe refractory psoriasis on the face, neck, and extremities is socially withdrawn because of the appearance of the lesions. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Discuss the possibility of enrolling in a worker-retraining program.
B. Encourage the patient to volunteer to work on community projects.
C. Suggest that the patient use cosmetics to cover the psoriatic lesions.
D. Ask the patient to describe the impact of psoriasis on quality of life.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Ask the patient to describe the impact of psoriasis on quality of life. This is the first action the nurse should take to understand the patient's perspective, feelings, and how psoriasis is affecting their daily life. By doing so, the nurse can assess the severity of the social withdrawal and emotional impact, which can guide further interventions.
Choice A is incorrect because enrolling in a worker-retraining program does not address the immediate social withdrawal and emotional impact due to psoriasis.
Choice B is incorrect as encouraging the patient to volunteer for community projects may not be suitable or effective in addressing the patient's current emotional distress.
Choice C is incorrect because suggesting cosmetics to cover the lesions only focuses on the physical appearance and does not address the underlying emotional and social issues.
What is the best method to prevent the spread of infection to others when the nurse is changing the dressing over a wound infected with Staphylococcus aureus?
A. Change the dressing using sterile gloves.
B. Apply antibiotic ointment over the wound.
C. Wash hands and properly dispose of soiled dressings.
D. Soak the dressing in sterile normal saline before removal.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Wash hands and properly dispose of soiled dressings. This is the best method to prevent the spread of infection when changing the dressing over a wound infected with Staphylococcus aureus. Washing hands helps to remove any potential pathogens, reducing the risk of cross-contamination. Proper disposal of soiled dressings ensures that any infectious material is contained and not spread to others.
Incorrect options:
A: Changing the dressing using sterile gloves is important, but it is not sufficient on its own to prevent the spread of infection.
B: Applying antibiotic ointment over the wound may help treat the infection locally but does not address the risk of spreading the infection.
D: Soaking the dressing in sterile normal saline before removal may help with the removal process, but it does not address preventing the spread of infection to others.
LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 17 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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