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LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 16

LPN exams · medical-surgical

LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions set 16

You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five medical-surgical questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

While assessing a client, a nurse detects a bluish tinge to the client's palms, soles, and mucous membranes. Which action should the nurse take next?

  1. A. Ask the client about current medications he or she is taking.
  2. B. Use pulse oximetry to assess the client's oxygen saturation.
  3. C. Auscultate the client's lung fields for adventitious sounds.
  4. D. Palpate the client's bilateral radial and pedal pulses.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Use pulse oximetry to assess the client's oxygen saturation.

The correct answer is B: Use pulse oximetry to assess the client's oxygen saturation. The bluish tinge, known as cyanosis, indicates decreased oxygen saturation in the blood. Using pulse oximetry will provide objective data on the client's oxygen levels. This is crucial in determining the severity of hypoxemia and guiding further interventions. Choice A: Asking about medications is not the immediate priority when cyanosis is detected. Medications may be relevant but do not address the urgent need for assessing oxygen saturation. Choice C: Auscultating lung fields is important in assessing respiratory status, but it does not directly address the need to determine the client's oxygen saturation level. Choice D: Palpating pulses can provide information on perfusion, but it does not directly assess the client's oxygenation status, which is the immediate concern when cyanosis is present.

Question 2

The skin has __ layers, in addition to the subcutaneous tissue layer

  1. A. One
  2. B. Two
  3. C. Three
  4. D. Four
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Two

Two,' because the skin comprises two primary layers the epidermis and dermis excluding the subcutaneous tissue layer, which is beneath the skin proper. The epidermis, the outermost layer, acts as a waterproof barrier and protects against pathogens, while the dermis, below it, houses blood vessels, nerves, and glands, providing strength and elasticity. The subcutaneous layer, or hypodermis, is a separate entity of fat and connective tissue, not counted as a skin layer but as underlying support. 'One' is incorrect, as it ignores the dermis. 'Three' might confuse the subcutaneous layer as a skin layer, which it isn't in standard terminology. 'Four' exceeds the anatomical structure entirely. This distinction is vital in nursing for assessing skin integrity and wounds, as each layer's condition affects healing and care strategies, making 'Two' the accurate choice based on established skin anatomy.

Question 3

Which of the following changes in aging skin best explains why an elderly person is at increased risk for a skin tear injury?

  1. A. increased epidermal migration
  2. B. increased secretion of sebum
  3. C. decreased size of rete ridges
  4. D. decreased dermal thickness over bony prominences
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — decreased size of rete ridges

Aging skin's fragility stems from structural shifts, with 'decreased size of rete ridges' best explaining skin tear risk. Rete ridges epidermal-dermal junctions flatten with age e.g., from 0.2 mm to 0.1 mm reducing adhesion, per Baranoski and Ayello (2004), so minor shear (e.g., tape removal) tears skin. , 'increased epidermal migration,' is false; it slows e.g., healing drops 50% not aiding tears. , 'increased sebum,' reverses; secretion falls e.g., 20% less oil drying skin but not tearing it. , 'decreased dermal thickness,' thins skin e.g., 0.5 mm over tibia vs. 1 mm young but pressure ulcers, not tears, rise here. An 80-year-old's paper-thin arm e.g., 70% tear incidence shows rete ridge loss trumps thickness for tears, a nurse's assessment key in geriatrics. Unlike pressure risk over bones, tears exploit epidermal detachment, per *Wound Care Essentials*, making the precise, primary cause.

Question 4

What antibody mediates Type I hypersensitivity?

  1. A. IgA
  2. B. IgE
  3. C. IgG
  4. D. IgM
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — IgE

The correct answer is B: IgE. In Type I hypersensitivity reactions, IgE antibodies are involved. Firstly, upon initial exposure to an allergen, B cells produce IgE antibodies specific to that allergen. IgE antibodies then bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon subsequent exposure to the same allergen, it cross-links the IgE antibodies on mast cells and basophils, leading to degranulation and release of inflammatory mediators like histamine. This results in the symptoms of Type I hypersensitivity reactions. Choice A (IgA) is incorrect because IgA is mainly involved in mucosal immunity. Choice C (IgG) is incorrect because while IgG can be involved in Type II and Type III hypersensitivity reactions, it is not the primary antibody in Type I hypersensitivity. Choice D (IgM) is incorrect because IgM is typically involved in the primary immune response, not in Type I hypersensitivity reactions.

Question 5

A client with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

  1. A. Tardive dyskinesia.
  2. B. Orthostatic hypotension.
  3. C. Photosensitivity.
  4. D. Hyperglycemia.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Tardive dyskinesia.

The correct answer is A: Tardive dyskinesia. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic known to cause extrapyramidal side effects, including tardive dyskinesia, which is characterized by involuntary repetitive movements of the face and body. This side effect is a serious concern due to its potential to be irreversible. Monitoring for tardive dyskinesia is crucial in clients taking haloperidol to detect and manage symptoms promptly. Explanation for incorrect choices: B: Orthostatic hypotension - This side effect is more commonly associated with other antipsychotic medications, particularly second-generation ones. C: Photosensitivity - Haloperidol does not typically cause photosensitivity as a side effect. D: Hyperglycemia - While some antipsychotic medications may lead to metabolic side effects like hyperglycemia, haloperidol is not typically associated with this specific side effect.

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Question 6

A nurse is evaluating a client's progress after receiving hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for a chronic venous ulcer. Which outcome indicates that HBOT has been effective?

  1. A. The client reports reduced pain in the affected leg
  2. B. The client has increased oxygen saturation in the blood
  3. C. The client has decreased edema in the affected leg
  4. D. The client has increased granulation tissue in the ulcer
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Question 7

A client is undergoing fluid replacement after being burned on 20% of her body 12 hours ago. The nursing assessment reveals a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 110 beats/minute, and a urine output of 20 mL over the past hour. The nurse reports the findings to the health care provider (HCP) and anticipates which prescription?

  1. A. Transfusing 1 unit of packed red blood cells
  2. B. Administering a diuretic to increase urine output
  3. C. Increasing the amount of intravenous (IV) lactated Ringer's solution administered per hour
  4. D. Changing the IV lactated Ringer's solution to one that contains 5% dextrose in water
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Question 8

A nurse is evaluating a client's progress after receiving hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for a chronic venous ulcer. Which outcome indicates that HBOT has been effective?

  1. A. The client reports reduced pain in the affected leg
  2. B. The client has increased oxygen saturation in the blood
  3. C. The client has decreased edema in the affected leg
  4. D. The client has increased granulation tissue in the ulcer
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Question 9

When a bird is transferred from 30ºC to 10ºC, its body temperature-

  1. A. Is maintained at original level due to increased dissipation of heat
  2. B. Declines due to increased dissipation of heat
  3. C. Rises above normal due to increased production and conservation of heat
  4. D. Remain at original constant level due to increased conservation and production of heat
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Question 10

A client with a surgical wound on the abdomen has a negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) device attached to the wound. Which action should the nurse take when caring for this client?

  1. A. Change the dressing every 12 hours or as needed
  2. B. Irrigate the wound with normal saline before applying the dressing
  3. C. Ensure that the dressing is sealed and airtight around the wound
  4. D. Clamp the tubing when ambulating or repositioning the client
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Question 11

During midfetal life, the primary source of blood cells is the:

  1. A. Bone marrow
  2. B. Spleen
  3. C. Lymph Nodes
  4. D. Liver
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Question 12

A client with a surgical wound on the abdomen has a negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) device attached to the wound. Which action should the nurse take when caring for this client?

  1. A. Change the dressing every 12 hours or as needed
  2. B. Irrigate the wound with normal saline before applying the dressing
  3. C. Ensure that the dressing is sealed and airtight around the wound
  4. D. Clamp the tubing when ambulating or repositioning the client
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Question 13

A male infant born at 30-weeks gestation at an outlying hospital is being prepared for transport to a Level IV neonatal facility. His respirations are 90/min, and his heart rate is 150 beats per minute. Which drug is the transport team most likely to administer to this infant?

  1. A. Ampicillin (Omnipen) 25 mg/kg slow IV push.
  2. B. Gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) 2.5 mg/kg IV.
  3. C. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 20 micrograms/kg IV.
  4. D. Beractant (Survanta) 100 mg/kg per endotracheal tube.
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Question 14

Which of the following early contributors to the development of immunology is paired up properly with his or her accomplishment?

  1. A. Louis Pasteur: demonstrated that cowpox vaccination can protect from smallpox
  2. B. Paul Ehrlich: identified lymphocytes as the cells mediating adaptive immunity
  3. C. MacFarlane Burnet: proposed the side-chain theory of antibodies which suggested that multiple antigen receptors are expressed on immune cells
  4. D. Robert Koch: developed techniques to grow pure bacterial cultures
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Question 15

Identify the disease in which the person's immune system no longer recognizes its own tissues or organs.

  1. A. Allergies
  2. B. Immunodeficiencies
  3. C. Autoimmune diseases
  4. D. Delayed hypersensitivity
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About these LPN exams medical-surgical questions

LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 16 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

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