LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 3
LPN exams · medical-surgical
LPN exams medical-surgical practice questionsset 3
You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five medical-surgical questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Two dissimilar inbred strains of mice, A and B, are crossed to yield an F1 hybrid strain, AB. If a large dose of spleen cells from an adult A mouse is injected into an adult AB mouse, which one of the following is MOST likely to occur?
A. The spleen cells will be destroyed
B. The spleen cells will survive and will have no effect in the recipient
C. The spleen cells will induce a graft-versus-host reaction in the recipient
D. The spleen cells will survive and induce tolerance of strain A grafts in the recipient
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — The spleen cells will induce a graft-versus-host reaction in the recipient
Rationale for Correct Answer (C): When spleen cells from a donor mouse are injected into a genetically dissimilar recipient mouse, it can lead to a graft-versus-host reaction. This is because the recipient's immune system recognizes the donor cells as foreign and mounts an immune response against them. In this case, since the donor mouse is of strain A and the recipient is an F1 hybrid of strains A and B, the genetic disparity is significant, leading to a higher likelihood of a strong immune response from the recipient against the donor spleen cells.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: The spleen cells being destroyed is less likely as the recipient's immune system would typically recognize and respond to foreign cells rather than simply destroy them.
B: Spleen cells surviving without any effect is unlikely because of the genetic disparity between the donor and recipient mice.
D: Inducing tolerance of strain A grafts in the recipient is less likely as a strong immune response is expected due to the genetic differences between
Question 2
Which of the following pairings is appropriate?
A. stratum germinativum-keratin
B. stratum corneum-melanocytes
C. stratum granulosum-keratin
D. stratum lucidum-blood vessels
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — stratum granulosum-keratin
Epidermal layers have distinct roles and compositions. The stratum germinativum is the basal layer where cell division occurs, producing cells that eventually keratinize, but it is not primarily associated with keratin itself. The stratum corneum, the outermost layer, is packed with keratin, not melanocytes, which are found in the stratum germinativum and produce melanin. The stratum granulosum is where keratinization begins, with cells accumulating keratin as they die and move upward, making it a fitting match for keratin. The stratum lucidum, present only in thick skin, consists of dead, keratinized cells but lacks blood vessels, which are exclusive to the dermis. The correct pairing hinges on the layer most directly tied to keratin production and accumulation. The stratum granulosum's role in this process forming keratohyalin granules and initiating the transition to the stratum corneum makes it the strongest match, aligning with histological descriptions of epidermal differentiation and keratin's protective function.
Question 3
Which of the following pairings is appropriate?
A. stratum germinativum-keratin
B. stratum corneum-melanocytes
C. stratum granulosum-keratin
D. stratum lucidum-blood vessels
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — stratum granulosum-keratin
Epidermal layers have distinct roles and compositions. The stratum germinativum is the basal layer where cell division occurs, producing cells that eventually keratinize, but it is not primarily associated with keratin itself. The stratum corneum, the outermost layer, is packed with keratin, not melanocytes, which are found in the stratum germinativum and produce melanin. The stratum granulosum is where keratinization begins, with cells accumulating keratin as they die and move upward, making it a fitting match for keratin. The stratum lucidum, present only in thick skin, consists of dead, keratinized cells but lacks blood vessels, which are exclusive to the dermis. The correct pairing hinges on the layer most directly tied to keratin production and accumulation. The stratum granulosum's role in this process forming keratohyalin granules and initiating the transition to the stratum corneum makes it the strongest match, aligning with histological descriptions of epidermal differentiation and keratin's protective function.
Question 4
Which of the following pairings is appropriate?
A. stratum germinativum-keratin
B. stratum corneum-melanocytes
C. stratum granulosum-keratin
D. stratum lucidum-blood vessels
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — stratum granulosum-keratin
Epidermal layers have distinct roles and compositions. The stratum germinativum is the basal layer where cell division occurs, producing cells that eventually keratinize, but it is not primarily associated with keratin itself. The stratum corneum, the outermost layer, is packed with keratin, not melanocytes, which are found in the stratum germinativum and produce melanin. The stratum granulosum is where keratinization begins, with cells accumulating keratin as they die and move upward, making it a fitting match for keratin. The stratum lucidum, present only in thick skin, consists of dead, keratinized cells but lacks blood vessels, which are exclusive to the dermis. The correct pairing hinges on the layer most directly tied to keratin production and accumulation. The stratum granulosum's role in this process forming keratohyalin granules and initiating the transition to the stratum corneum makes it the strongest match, aligning with histological descriptions of epidermal differentiation and keratin's protective function.
Question 5
An 8-year-old child is hit by a motor vehicle in the school parking lot. The school nurse notes that the child is responding to verbal stimulation but is not moving his extremities when requested. What is the first action the nurse should take?
A. Wait for the child’s parents to arrive.
B. Move the child out of the parking lot.
C. Have someone notify the emergency medical services (EMS) system.
D. Help the child stand to return to play.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Have someone notify the emergency medical services (EMS) system.
The correct answer is C: Have someone notify the emergency medical services (EMS) system. This is the most appropriate action because the child's lack of movement in response to requests indicates a potential serious injury that requires immediate medical attention. Calling EMS ensures that the child receives prompt and appropriate care from trained medical professionals.
Choice A (Wait for the child’s parents to arrive) is incorrect because in an emergency situation like this, time is crucial, and waiting for parents may delay necessary medical intervention.
Choice B (Move the child out of the parking lot) is incorrect because moving the child without proper assessment and stabilization could worsen any potential spinal cord or other injuries.
Choice D (Help the child stand to return to play) is incorrect as it ignores the seriousness of the situation and risks further harm to the child.
In summary, notifying EMS is the best course of action to ensure the child's safety and well-being in this emergency scenario.
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Question 6
What is the difference between a first-degree burn and a second-degree burn?
A. A first-degree burn affects only the epidermis, while a second-degree burn affects both the epidermis and the dermis.
B. A first-degree burn is characterized by redness and pain, while a second-degree burn is characterized by blisters and swelling.
C. A first-degree burn heals within a few days, while a second-degree burn may take several weeks to heal.
D. All of the above.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because it encompasses all the key differences between first-degree and second-degree burns.
A: A first-degree burn affects only the epidermis, while a second-degree burn affects both the epidermis and the dermis. This is correct as first-degree burns are superficial, affecting only the outer layer of the skin, while second-degree burns penetrate deeper into the dermis.
B: A first-degree burn is characterized by redness and pain, while a second-degree burn is characterized by blisters and swelling. This is accurate as first-degree burns typically result in redness and pain, whereas second-degree burns involve blister formation and swelling due to damage to deeper skin layers.
C: A first-degree burn heals within a few days, while a second-degree burn may take several weeks to heal. This is true as first-degree burns are minor and usually heal quickly, whereas second-degree burns require more time to heal due to the deeper tissue damage.
Therefore, by considering all the distinctions
The healthcare provider prescribes an indwelling urinary catheter for a client with urinary retention. Which intervention, along with strict aseptic technique, will decrease the risk of infection for this procedure?
A. Irrigating the catheter with sterile saline on a daily basis
B. Instructing the client to void around the catheter
C. Using an anesthetic lubricating gel during insertion
D. Inflating the balloon while the catheter is in the urethra
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: C - Using an anesthetic lubricating gel during insertion
Rationale: Using an anesthetic lubricating gel during catheter insertion helps to reduce discomfort and trauma to the urethral mucosa, decreasing the risk of infection. This gel also helps to facilitate a smoother insertion process, reducing the chances of introducing pathogens into the urethra. Strict aseptic technique is important to prevent infection but using the lubricating gel specifically addresses the risk of trauma and discomfort during catheterization.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Irrigating the catheter with sterile saline on a daily basis - While irrigation with sterile saline is important for maintaining catheter patency, it does not directly decrease the risk of infection during catheter insertion.
B: Instructing the client to void around the catheter - This does not address the risk of infection during catheter insertion; it is important for proper catheter care post-insertion.
D: Inflating the balloon while the catheter is in
The nurse writes the diagnosis"risk for injury related to impaired balance"Â for the client diagnosed with vertigo. Which nursing intervention should be included in the plan of care?
A. Provide information about vertigo and its treatment.
B. Assess for level and type of diversional activity.
C. Assess for visual acuity and proprioceptive deficits.
D. Refer the client to a support group and counseling.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because assessing for visual acuity and proprioceptive deficits is essential in managing a client with vertigo to identify potential factors contributing to impaired balance. Visual acuity helps determine if vision issues are exacerbating vertigo symptoms, while proprioceptive deficits affect body awareness and balance. By assessing these factors, the nurse can tailor interventions to address specific needs, such as recommending corrective measures for vision problems or implementing balance exercises.
A: Providing information about vertigo is important but does not directly address the specific issue of assessing visual acuity and proprioceptive deficits.
B: Assessing for diversional activities is important for overall client well-being but does not directly address the balance issues related to vertigo.
D: Referring the client to a support group and counseling may be beneficial for emotional support but does not directly address the physical factors contributing to impaired balance.
As charge nurse in a long-term-care (LTC) facility, you are developing a care plan for a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer located over the sacrum. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to delegate to an LPN who works as a team leader in the facility?
A. Choose the type of dressing to be used on the ulcer.
B. Use the Norton scale to assess for pressure ulcer risk factors.
C. Assist the client to change position at frequent intervals.
D. Inspect and document the appearance of the ulcer daily.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Inspect and document the appearance of the ulcer daily. Delegating this task to an LPN is appropriate as it involves routine monitoring and documentation of the pressure ulcer, which is within the scope of practice for an LPN. By inspecting and documenting the ulcer daily, the LPN can track any changes in the ulcer's appearance, such as signs of infection or healing progress, and report this information to the charge nurse or healthcare provider. This helps in ensuring proper wound care and timely intervention.
Choice A (Choosing the type of dressing) involves making a clinical decision that requires a higher level of assessment and expertise, typically done by an RN or wound care specialist. Choice B (Using the Norton scale for assessment) involves a comprehensive assessment of risk factors, which is more suitable for an RN. Choice C (Assisting the client to change position) involves direct client care and should be done by a nursing assistant under the supervision of an RN or LPN.
Fingerprint patterns are established prenatally during development of the:
A. stratum corneum
B. dermal papillary layer
C. stratum germinativum
D. dermal reticular layer
Correct answer:
Fingerprints are unique patterns formed by ridges on the skin's surface, established during fetal development between the 10th and 16th weeks of gestation. These ridges arise from the dermal papillary layer, the superficial part of the dermis, which interfaces with the epidermis. The epidermis molds over these dermal papillae, creating the visible patterns. The stratum corneum, the outermost layer, is a dead, keratinized layer that does not determine ridge formation. The stratum germinativum, while critical for epidermal cell production, follows the dermal template rather than initiating it. The dermal reticular layer, deeper in the dermis, provides structural support but is not directly involved in fingerprint patterning. Genetic factors influence the ridge patterns, but their physical basis lies in the papillary layer's undulations. This prenatal process ensures fingerprints are permanent and unique, a feature exploited in identification sciences, making the dermal papillary layer the key developmental site.
Fingerprint patterns are established prenatally during development of the:
A. stratum corneum
B. dermal papillary layer
C. stratum germinativum
D. dermal reticular layer
Correct answer:
Fingerprints are unique patterns formed by ridges on the skin's surface, established during fetal development between the 10th and 16th weeks of gestation. These ridges arise from the dermal papillary layer, the superficial part of the dermis, which interfaces with the epidermis. The epidermis molds over these dermal papillae, creating the visible patterns. The stratum corneum, the outermost layer, is a dead, keratinized layer that does not determine ridge formation. The stratum germinativum, while critical for epidermal cell production, follows the dermal template rather than initiating it. The dermal reticular layer, deeper in the dermis, provides structural support but is not directly involved in fingerprint patterning. Genetic factors influence the ridge patterns, but their physical basis lies in the papillary layer's undulations. This prenatal process ensures fingerprints are permanent and unique, a feature exploited in identification sciences, making the dermal papillary layer the key developmental site.
Fingerprint patterns are established prenatally during development of the:
A. stratum corneum
B. dermal papillary layer
C. stratum germinativum
D. dermal reticular layer
Correct answer:
Fingerprints are unique patterns formed by ridges on the skin's surface, established during fetal development between the 10th and 16th weeks of gestation. These ridges arise from the dermal papillary layer, the superficial part of the dermis, which interfaces with the epidermis. The epidermis molds over these dermal papillae, creating the visible patterns. The stratum corneum, the outermost layer, is a dead, keratinized layer that does not determine ridge formation. The stratum germinativum, while critical for epidermal cell production, follows the dermal template rather than initiating it. The dermal reticular layer, deeper in the dermis, provides structural support but is not directly involved in fingerprint patterning. Genetic factors influence the ridge patterns, but their physical basis lies in the papillary layer's undulations. This prenatal process ensures fingerprints are permanent and unique, a feature exploited in identification sciences, making the dermal papillary layer the key developmental site.
The nurse writes the diagnosis"risk for injury related to impaired balance" for the client diagnosed with vertigo. Which nursing intervention should be included in the plan of care?
A. Provide information about vertigo and its treatment.
B. Assess for level and type of diversional activity.
C. Assess for visual acuity and proprioceptive deficits.
D. Refer the client to a support group and counseling.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because assessing for visual acuity and proprioceptive deficits is essential in managing a client with vertigo to identify potential factors contributing to impaired balance. Visual acuity helps determine if vision issues are exacerbating vertigo symptoms, while proprioceptive deficits affect body awareness and balance. By assessing these factors, the nurse can tailor interventions to address specific needs, such as recommending corrective measures for vision problems or implementing balance exercises.
A: Providing information about vertigo is important but does not directly address the specific issue of assessing visual acuity and proprioceptive deficits.
B: Assessing for diversional activities is important for overall client well-being but does not directly address the balance issues related to vertigo.
D: Referring the client to a support group and counseling may be beneficial for emotional support but does not directly address the physical factors contributing to impaired balance.
What is the benefit of inducing mild hypothermia to a post-arrest patient who has a return of spontaneous circulation?
A. Hypothermia reduces the body's need for stored energy (sugar) to maintain homeostasis
B. Hypothermia increases blood flow to the brain and heart while reducing blood flow to the peripheral tissues
C. It reduces intracranial pressure, the cerebral metabolic rate, and the brain's demand for oxygen
D. It reduces the amount of oxygen and blood circulation needed to supply the tissues of the periphery
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because inducing mild hypothermia in a post-arrest patient with a return of spontaneous circulation helps reduce intracranial pressure, cerebral metabolic rate, and the brain's demand for oxygen. This is crucial in preventing secondary brain injury and improving neurological outcomes.
Explanation:
1. Reduced intracranial pressure: Hypothermia causes vasoconstriction, reducing cerebral blood flow and lowering intracranial pressure.
2. Decreased cerebral metabolic rate: Hypothermia slows down cellular metabolism, decreasing the brain's oxygen and energy requirements.
3. Lowered brain's demand for oxygen: With reduced metabolic rate and blood flow, the brain requires less oxygen.
Summary of other choices:
A: Hypothermia does not directly reduce the body's need for stored energy (sugar) but rather decreases metabolic rate.
B: Hypothermia may alter blood flow distribution but does not specifically increase blood flow to the brain and heart.
D: Hypothermia primarily affects the
Diversity is an important feature of the immune system. Which one of the following statements about it is INCORRECT?
A. Humans can make antibodies with about 10^8 different VH x VL combinations
B. A single cell can synthesize IgM antibody, then switch to IgA antibody
C. The hematopoietic stem cell carries the genetic potential to create more than 10^4 immunoglobulin genes
D. A single B lymphocyte can produce antibodies of many different specificities, but a plasma cell is monospecific
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because a single B lymphocyte can produce antibodies of many different specificities due to the process of somatic hypermutation and class switching. This allows for the generation of a diverse repertoire of antibodies. Plasma cells, on the other hand, are derived from B cells and are typically monospecific, producing antibodies of a single specificity. This is important for maintaining a focused immune response.
Explanation of other choices:
A: Choice A is correct. Humans can indeed generate antibodies with approximately 10^8 different VH x VL combinations, contributing to the vast diversity of the immune response.
B: Choice B is correct. A single B cell can switch from producing IgM antibodies to IgA antibodies through the process of class switching, enhancing the adaptability of the immune response.
C: Choice C is correct. Hematopoietic stem cells possess the genetic potential to create over 10^4 immunoglobulin genes, which allows for the production of a wide array of antibodies
LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 3 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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