LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions set 22

Correct answer:

The correct answer is D because pale and cold skin around the incision indicates poor circulation and potential compromised blood flow, which could lead to tissue damage or necrosis. This is a critical finding that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. A: Incisional pain is expected postoperatively and can be managed with pain medication, it does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. B: Heart rate elevation can be a normal response to surgery and anesthesia, and 110 beats/minute may not be concerning depending on the patient's baseline and clinical context. C: Temporary loss of sensation or numbness around the incision site is common after blepharoplasty due to local anesthesia effects, and it usually resolves as the anesthesia wears off. It does not require immediate intervention unless it persists or worsens.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is D because it is crucial for the patient to understand the importance of completing the full HPV vaccination series for optimal protection. By informing the patient about the date for the next dose, it ensures adherence to the recommended schedule and maximizes the effectiveness of the vaccine. This helps in building long-term immunity against HPV-related diseases. Choice A is incorrect because HPV vaccination does not prevent all sexually transmitted diseases, it specifically targets HPV strains. Choice B is incorrect because even after HPV vaccination, regular Pap smears are still necessary for cervical cancer screening. Choice C is incorrect as mild pain at the injection site is a common side effect of the vaccine and does not typically require notification to the healthcare provider unless it persists or worsens.

Correct answer:

Sweat, from eccrine glands, contains water (99%), urea, lactic acid, and salts like sodium chloride, but not calcium in significant amounts. Water is the primary component, cooling the body via evaporation. Urea, a metabolic waste, is excreted in trace amounts, reflecting sweat's minor excretory role. Lactic acid, from muscle activity, appears during exertion, lowering sweat pH. Sodium, potassium, and chloride ions maintain electrolyte balance, but calcium, critical in blood and bone, is conserved by the kidneys, not sweat glands. Analysis of sweat composition shows negligible calcium unlike urine, where it's excreted. This reflects sweat's focus on thermoregulation and minor waste removal, not mineral loss. Physiological studies confirm calcium's absence as a standard component, distinguishing it from other substances routinely detected in sweat.

Correct answer:

Sweat, from eccrine glands, contains water (99%), urea, lactic acid, and salts like sodium chloride, but not calcium in significant amounts. Water is the primary component, cooling the body via evaporation. Urea, a metabolic waste, is excreted in trace amounts, reflecting sweat's minor excretory role. Lactic acid, from muscle activity, appears during exertion, lowering sweat pH. Sodium, potassium, and chloride ions maintain electrolyte balance, but calcium, critical in blood and bone, is conserved by the kidneys, not sweat glands. Analysis of sweat composition shows negligible calcium unlike urine, where it's excreted. This reflects sweat's focus on thermoregulation and minor waste removal, not mineral loss. Physiological studies confirm calcium's absence as a standard component, distinguishing it from other substances routinely detected in sweat.

Correct answer:

Sweat, from eccrine glands, contains water (99%), urea, lactic acid, and salts like sodium chloride, but not calcium in significant amounts. Water is the primary component, cooling the body via evaporation. Urea, a metabolic waste, is excreted in trace amounts, reflecting sweat's minor excretory role. Lactic acid, from muscle activity, appears during exertion, lowering sweat pH. Sodium, potassium, and chloride ions maintain electrolyte balance, but calcium, critical in blood and bone, is conserved by the kidneys, not sweat glands. Analysis of sweat composition shows negligible calcium unlike urine, where it's excreted. This reflects sweat's focus on thermoregulation and minor waste removal, not mineral loss. Physiological studies confirm calcium's absence as a standard component, distinguishing it from other substances routinely detected in sweat.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is C: Vasculitis. Vasculitis is a common complication of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and can lead to serious organ damage and even death. In SLE, inflammation affects blood vessels, leading to vasculitis which can cause tissue damage and impaired blood flow. While infections, cardiovascular impairment, and chronic kidney disease are also common causes of mortality in SLE patients, vasculitis is specifically associated with the disease and its complications. Infections can occur due to the immune system's weakened response, cardiovascular issues can arise from inflammation and damage to the heart and blood vessels, and chronic kidney disease can develop due to immune complex deposition in the kidneys. However, vasculitis is the most directly linked cause of death in SLE patients due to its impact on multiple organ systems.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is A: Partial-thickness skin loss of the dermis. This aligns with the definition of a stage II pressure ulcer, which involves partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and/or dermis. This stage typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B (Full-thickness skin loss) is incorrect as it corresponds to a stage III pressure ulcer where there is full-thickness tissue loss. Choice C (Blistering without skin loss) is incorrect as it describes a stage II pressure injury, not a pressure ulcer. Choice D (Intact skin with redness) is incorrect as it signifies a stage I pressure ulcer, where there is non-blanchable erythema of intact skin. Therefore, the nurse would expect to see partial-thickness skin loss of the dermis in the sacral area of the client with a stage II pressure ulcer.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is B: Ensure the weights of the Buck's traction are off the floor and hang freely. This intervention is essential to maintain proper traction and alignment of the fractured hip, which can help alleviate pain. When the weights are not hanging freely, the traction may not be effective, causing increased pain and potential complications. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: A: Adjusting the PCA machine for a lower dose may temporarily relieve pain, but it does not address the underlying issue of ineffective traction. C: Raising the head and foot of the bed may provide comfort but does not directly address the issue of inadequate traction. D: Turning the client on the affected leg can worsen the fracture and cause more pain, contrary to the goal of relieving pain in a client with a fractured hip in Buck's traction.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is A because a 30-year-old with renal failure needing epoetin alfa would benefit from a Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN) due to the need for ongoing medication administration and monitoring. Renal failure and epoetin alfa therapy require regular assessment of vital signs, medication side effects, and patient response, tasks well within an LPN's scope of practice. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as managing hemophilia B for PRBCs requires specialized knowledge and skills beyond an LPN's scope. - Choice C is incorrect as managing polycythemia vera for phlebotomy involves more complex care that is typically outside an LPN's scope. - Choice D is incorrect as post-stem cell transplant care, including bone marrow aspiration, requires a higher level of nursing expertise typically provided by a Registered Nurse or Nurse Practitioner.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is D: Provide written and oral education about the use of antiretroviral therapy during pregnancy. This is the best action because antiretroviral therapy has been proven to significantly reduce the risk of perinatal transmission of HIV. By educating the patient about the importance and benefits of adhering to antiretroviral therapy during pregnancy, the nurse can help protect the fetus from contracting HIV. A: Providing contact information for an AIDS support group may be helpful, but it does not directly address preventing perinatal transmission. B: Educating the patient about the risks is important, but it is crucial to also provide actionable steps like antiretroviral therapy. C: Notifying the CDC is not within the nurse's scope of practice and may not directly benefit the patient in preventing perinatal transmission.