LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 14
LPN exams · medical-surgical
LPN exams medical-surgical practice questionsset 14
You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five medical-surgical questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A teenaged male patient who is on a wrestling team is examined by the nurse in the clinic. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to teach the patient about the importance of not sharing headgear to prevent the spread of pediculosis?
A. Ring - like rashes with red, scaly borders over the entire scalp
B. Papular, wheal-like lesions with white deposits on the hair shaft
C. Patchy areas of alopecia with small vesicles and excoriated areas
D. Red, hive - like papules and plaques with sharply circumscribed borders
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Papular, wheal-like lesions with white deposits on the hair shaft
The correct answer is B because papular, wheal-like lesions with white deposits on the hair shaft are characteristic of pediculosis (lice infestation). The white deposits are lice eggs (nits) attached to the hair shaft, indicating the presence of lice. This finding would prompt the nurse to teach the patient about the importance of not sharing headgear to prevent the spread of lice. Sharing headgear can facilitate the transmission of lice from one person to another.
Choice A is incorrect as ring-like rashes with red, scaly borders over the entire scalp are more indicative of ringworm (tinea capitis), a fungal infection, not pediculosis.
Choice C is incorrect as patchy areas of alopecia with small vesicles and excoriated areas are more indicative of scalp folliculitis or herpes zoster, not pediculosis.
Choice D is incorrect as red, hive-like papules and plaques with sharply circumscribed borders are
Question 2
A 29-year-old male is brought to the ED after being involved in a motor vehicular collision when his car struck a bridge abutment. He is intoxicated, has GCS 13, and complains of abdominal pain. His BP was 80mmHg systolic by palpation on admission, but rapidly increased to 110/70 with the administration of IV flui His heart rate is 120/min. The chest x-ray shows loss of aortic knob, widening of mediastinum, no rib fracture, and no hemopneumothorax. Contrast angiography:
A. "Is not indicated"
B. Should be performed after CT scan of the chest
C. Is positive for aortic rupture in 80% of similar cases
D. Is not necessary if the CT-scan of the chest is normal
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Is not necessary if the CT-scan of the chest is normal
The correct answer is D: Is not necessary if the CT-scan of the chest is normal.
Rationale:
1. The patient presents with signs of possible aortic injury (e.g., widened mediastinum) after a high-speed motor vehicle collision.
2. CT scan of the chest is a sensitive imaging modality for detecting aortic injuries.
3. If the CT scan of the chest is normal, it effectively rules out aortic injury in this scenario.
4. Performing contrast angiography would be unnecessary if the initial CT scan is normal, as it would not provide additional diagnostic value and expose the patient to further risks.
Summary:
A: "Is not indicated" - Incorrect, as imaging is necessary to assess for aortic injury in this high-risk scenario.
B: Should be performed after CT scan of the chest - Incorrect, as contrast angiography is not necessary if the CT scan is normal.
C: Is positive for aortic rupture in 80% of similar cases -
Question 3
A 36-year-old woman complains of reflux symptoms and intermittent diarrhea. The diagnosis of gastrinoma is suspected so a fasting serum gastrin is obtained and found to be 280 pg/mL (normal <115 pg/mL). An abdominal CT is negative. What would you do now?
A. Refer her for an exploratory laparotomy
B. Measure serum gastrin in response to secretin infusion
C. Treat her for H. pylori
D. Obtain a dedicated small bowel series
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Measure serum gastrin in response to secretin infusion
The correct answer is B: Measure serum gastrin in response to secretin infusion. This step is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of gastrinoma. Secretin stimulation test is used to differentiate between Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (gastrinoma) and other causes of hypergastrinemia. If serum gastrin levels remain elevated after secretin infusion, it supports the diagnosis of gastrinoma.
Choice A: Refer her for an exploratory laparotomy - This is an invasive procedure and should not be the first step in the investigation of gastrinoma.
Choice C: Treat her for H. pylori - This is not indicated in the management of suspected gastrinoma. H. pylori infection is not a likely cause of the symptoms described.
Choice D: Obtain a dedicated small bowel series - This test is not typically used in the initial evaluation of gastrinoma. The secretin stimulation test is the preferred method for confirming the diagnosis.
Question 4
What is the main function of the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)?
A. Recruitment of neutrophils
B. Phagocytosis activation
C. Lysis of pathogens
D. Enhancing cytokine production
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Lysis of pathogens
The main function of the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) is to lyse pathogens by creating pores in their cell membranes. First, MAC assembles on the pathogen's surface. Then, it forms a pore, disrupting the pathogen's membrane integrity, leading to cell lysis. This mechanism is crucial for the immune system to effectively eliminate pathogens.
Choice A (Recruitment of neutrophils) is incorrect because MAC is not involved in recruiting neutrophils. Neutrophil recruitment is typically mediated by other signaling molecules.
Choice B (Phagocytosis activation) is incorrect as MAC does not directly activate phagocytosis. Phagocytosis is a separate process involving the engulfment of pathogens by immune cells.
Choice D (Enhancing cytokine production) is incorrect because MAC does not directly enhance cytokine production. Cytokine production is mainly regulated by other immune cells and signaling pathways.
Question 5
Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care after a patient with a right femur fracture has a hip spica cast applied?
A. Avoid placing the patient in prone position.
B. Ask the patient about abdominal discomfort.
C. Discuss remaining on bed rest for several weeks.
D. Use the cast support bar to reposition the patient.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Ask the patient about abdominal discomfort.
The correct answer is B: Ask the patient about abdominal discomfort. This is important because the patient with a hip spica cast may experience pressure on the abdomen, leading to potential abdominal discomfort or complications. It is crucial to monitor for signs of abdominal issues promptly.
A: Avoid placing the patient in prone position - While this is generally a good practice to prevent pressure ulcers, it is not directly related to the specific concern of abdominal discomfort in this scenario.
C: Discuss remaining on bed rest for several weeks - While bed rest may be necessary for a period, it is not directly addressing the potential issue of abdominal discomfort from the spica cast.
D: Use the cast support bar to reposition the patient - While repositioning the patient is important, the primary concern in this situation is monitoring for abdominal discomfort, not repositioning the patient.
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Question 6
A client with left-sided heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which position should the nurse place the client in to relieve these symptoms?
A. High Fowler's position.
B. Supine position.
C. Trendelenburg position.
D. Sims' position.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: High Fowler's position. Placing the client in a High Fowler's position helps reduce dyspnea and orthopnea by facilitating lung expansion and improving ventilation. In this position, the client's head and chest are elevated at a 90-degree angle, allowing for maximal chest expansion and improved oxygenation. This position also helps reduce the workload on the heart by decreasing venous return, which can help alleviate symptoms of left-sided heart failure.
Summary:
- A: High Fowler's position is correct as it facilitates lung expansion and improves ventilation.
- B: Supine position would not be ideal as it can exacerbate symptoms by increasing pressure on the lungs and heart.
- C: Trendelenburg position would worsen symptoms by increasing venous return and fluid overload.
- D: Sims' position is used for procedures or to facilitate drainage, not for relieving dyspnea and orthopnea.
A client who has been receiving treatment for depression with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) reports experiencing decreased libido. What is the best response by the nurse?
A. Decreased libido is a common side effect of SSRIs and may improve over time.
B. I will notify your healthcare provider to discuss possible medication changes.
C. You should take your medication with food to reduce side effects.
D. Increase your daily exercise to help manage this side effect.
Correct answer:
The correct response is B: I will notify your healthcare provider to discuss possible medication changes. This is the best choice because decreased libido is a common side effect of SSRIs that can significantly impact the client's quality of life. Consulting the healthcare provider is crucial to explore alternative treatment options or adjustments to improve the client's symptoms. Choices A, C, and D do not address the underlying issue of decreased libido and are unlikely to provide effective solutions. Choice A only acknowledges the side effect without offering a proactive solution. Choice C is unrelated to the sexual side effect and may not address the client's concerns. Choice D suggests a general lifestyle change that may not directly address the medication side effect. Consulting the healthcare provider for medication adjustments is the most appropriate action to address this specific side effect.
A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
A. Take this medication in the morning.
B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
C. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
D. Decrease your intake of high-sodium foods.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: "Monitor your blood pressure regularly." This instruction is crucial for a client with hypertension prescribed hydrochlorothiazide because the medication helps lower blood pressure. By monitoring their blood pressure regularly, the client can track the effectiveness of the medication and ensure it is within the target range. This allows for early detection of any potential issues or the need for medication adjustments.
Option A is incorrect because while it is generally recommended to take hydrochlorothiazide in the morning, it is not the most critical instruction for this scenario. Option B is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide can cause hypokalemia, so avoiding high potassium foods is not necessary. Option D is also important but not as crucial as monitoring blood pressure, as reducing high-sodium foods can help manage hypertension but is not specific to hydrochlorothiazide.
The female client tells the clinic nurse she is going on a seven(7)-day cruise and is worried about getting motion sickness. Which information should the nurse discuss with the client?
A. Make an appointment for the client to see the health-care provider.
B. Recommend getting an over-the-counter scopolamine patch.
C. Discourage the client from taking the trip because she is worried.
D. Instruct the client to lie down and the motion sickness will go away.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because recommending an over-the-counter scopolamine patch is an appropriate intervention for preventing motion sickness during a cruise. Scopolamine is a common medication used to alleviate symptoms of motion sickness by affecting the vestibular system. It is often recommended for individuals going on cruises or experiencing other forms of motion sickness.
Choice A is incorrect because making an appointment with the healthcare provider may not be necessary for a common issue like motion sickness and could delay the client's access to immediate relief.
Choice C is incorrect as discouraging the client from taking the trip does not address the client's concern about motion sickness and is not a practical solution.
Choice D is incorrect as instructing the client to lie down does not address motion sickness and may not be effective in preventing or alleviating symptoms.
A nurse is applying a dressing to a wound that has moderate to heavy exudate. Which of the following types of dressing would be most appropriate for this wound?
A. Transparent film
B. Hydrogel
C. Foam
D. Alginate
Correct answer:
Alginate is the correct answer because it is highly absorbent, capable of managing moderate to heavy exudate by absorbing up to 20 times its weight in fluid, making it ideal for such wounds. It forms a gel when in contact with exudate, maintaining a moist environment that supports healing and autolytic debridement, while preventing maceration of surrounding skin. Transparent film is non-absorbent and suited for dry wounds, offering protection but not fluid management. Hydrogel is minimally absorbent and better for dry or minimally exudative wounds, providing hydration rather than absorption. Foam is moderately absorbent, handling light to moderate exudate, but less effective than alginate for heavy drainage due to its lower capacity (up to four times its weight). The wound's moderate to heavy exudate requires a dressing like alginate to effectively manage fluid and promote optimal healing conditions.
A nurse is applying a dressing to a wound that has moderate to heavy exudate. Which of the following types of dressing would be most appropriate for this wound?
A. Transparent film
B. Hydrogel
C. Foam
D. Alginate
Correct answer:
Alginate is the correct answer because it is highly absorbent, capable of managing moderate to heavy exudate by absorbing up to 20 times its weight in fluid, making it ideal for such wounds. It forms a gel when in contact with exudate, maintaining a moist environment that supports healing and autolytic debridement, while preventing maceration of surrounding skin. Transparent film is non-absorbent and suited for dry wounds, offering protection but not fluid management. Hydrogel is minimally absorbent and better for dry or minimally exudative wounds, providing hydration rather than absorption. Foam is moderately absorbent, handling light to moderate exudate, but less effective than alginate for heavy drainage due to its lower capacity (up to four times its weight). The wound's moderate to heavy exudate requires a dressing like alginate to effectively manage fluid and promote optimal healing conditions.
A high school teacher with ulnar drift caused by rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is scheduled for arthroplasty of several joints in the left hand. Which patient statement to the nurse indicates a realistic expectation for the surgery?
A. This procedure will correct the deformities in my fingers.'
B. I will not have to do as many hand exercises after the surgery.'
C. I will be able to use my fingers with more flexibility to grasp things.'
D. My fingers will appear more normal in size and shape after this surgery.'
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: "I will be able to use my fingers with more flexibility to grasp things." This answer is correct because arthroplasty surgery aims to improve joint function and mobility rather than correcting deformities or changing the appearance of the fingers. Patients with ulnar drift caused by RA typically have limited mobility and flexibility in their fingers, so the goal of the surgery is to enhance the ability to use the fingers for daily tasks.
Choice A is incorrect because while the surgery may improve finger function, it may not fully correct all deformities caused by RA. Choice B is incorrect because hand exercises are typically an important part of the post-operative rehabilitation process to regain strength and mobility. Choice D is incorrect because while the surgery may improve the alignment of the joints, it may not significantly change the size or shape of the fingers.
What is the most likely diagnosis in a 30-year-old woman with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with elevated white blood cell count and bilirubin levels?
A. Acute hepatitis
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Acute cholangitis
D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Acute cholangitis. In a 30-year-old woman with right upper quadrant pain, fever, jaundice, elevated white blood cell count, and bilirubin levels, acute cholangitis is the most likely diagnosis. This condition is characterized by inflammation of the bile ducts, often due to obstruction, leading to symptoms such as pain, fever, and jaundice. The combination of right upper quadrant pain, fever, jaundice, and elevated white blood cell count and bilirubin levels suggests an infection in the biliary system, which is typical of acute cholangitis. Acute hepatitis (choice A) typically presents with elevated liver enzymes but may not have the same degree of biliary obstruction symptoms. Acute cholecystitis (choice B) usually presents with gallbladder inflammation and may not cause jaundice. Pancreatic cancer (choice D) typically presents with different symptoms and is less common in a
The nurse and the nursing assistive personnel are assisting a postoperative patient to turn in bed. To assist in minimizing discomfort, which instruction should the nurse provide to the patient?
A. "Close your eyes and think about something pleasant."Â
B. "Hold your breath and count to three."Â
C. "Grab my shoulders with your hands."Â
D. "Place your hand over your incision."Â
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: "Place your hand over your incision." This instruction is correct because it encourages the patient to provide support and gentle pressure to the incision area while turning, which can help reduce discomfort and provide a sense of security. This action can also prevent accidental disruption of the incision site.
A: "Close your eyes and think about something pleasant." This choice does not provide any physical support or guidance for the patient during the turning process.
B: "Hold your breath and count to three." This instruction is incorrect as holding one's breath can increase intra-abdominal pressure and potentially cause discomfort during the turning maneuver.
C: "Grab my shoulders with your hands." This choice does not address the specific need to provide support to the incision area and may not be the most effective way to minimize discomfort during turning.
A. Existence of antibodies and their ability to bind toxins
B. Discovery of germ theory
C. Smallpox eradication
D. Development of vaccines
Correct answer:
Paul Ehrlich predicted the existence of antibodies and their ability to bind toxins. He introduced the concept of the side-chain theory, proposing that cells have specific receptors (later known as antibodies) that can bind to toxins and neutralize them. This groundbreaking idea laid the foundation for modern immunology. Ehrlich's work was instrumental in understanding the immune response and paved the way for advancements in vaccine development and disease treatment.
Choice B (Discovery of germ theory) is incorrect because it was proposed by Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch, not Paul Ehrlich. Choice C (Smallpox eradication) is incorrect as Ehrlich did not predict smallpox eradication. Choice D (Development of vaccines) is incorrect because while Ehrlich's work contributed to vaccine development, his specific prediction was about antibodies and their toxin-binding ability, not vaccines in general.
LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 14 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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Keep going past these 15 questions
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