LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 26
LPN exams · medical-surgical
LPN exams medical-surgical practice questionsset 26
You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five medical-surgical questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A group of students is attending an in-service about do-not-resuscitate orders. Which of the following statements by one of the students indicate the need for further teaching?
A. Do-not-resuscitate orders are a form of euthanasia and I can just participate in a slow code if not completed.'
B. My nursing license will not be in jeopardy if I follow do-not resuscitate orders.'
C. Do-not-resuscitate orders may be rescinded if the client wishes.'
D. All of the above
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Do-not-resuscitate orders are a form of euthanasia and I can just participate in a slow code if not completed.'
The correct answer is A: "Do-not-resuscitate orders are a form of euthanasia and I can just participate in a slow code if not completed." This statement is incorrect because do-not-resuscitate orders are not a form of euthanasia. Euthanasia involves intentionally ending a patient's life, while DNR orders allow for a natural death without resuscitative measures. Additionally, participating in a "slow code" is unethical and not an appropriate response to a DNR order. Choices B and C are correct statements. B: "My nursing license will not be in jeopardy if I follow do-not-resuscitate orders" is true as long as the nurse follows legal and ethical guidelines. C: "Do-not-resuscitate orders may be rescinded if the client wishes" is also accurate as patients have the right to change their preferences regarding resuscitative measures.
Question 2
A patient arrived at the emergency department after tripping over a rug and falling at home. Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider?
A. There is bruising at the shoulder area.
B. The patient reports arm and shoulder pain.
C. The right arm appears shorter than the left.
D. There is decreased shoulder range of motion.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — The right arm appears shorter than the left.
The correct answer is C: The right arm appears shorter than the left. This finding suggests a possible shoulder dislocation or fracture, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications. Shortening of the affected limb is a classic sign of a fracture or dislocation. Communicating this to the healthcare provider promptly can expedite appropriate treatment.
Incorrect choices:
A: There is bruising at the shoulder area - Bruising alone may not indicate a serious injury compared to limb shortening.
B: The patient reports arm and shoulder pain - Pain is a common symptom after a fall and may not indicate a specific serious injury.
D: There is decreased shoulder range of motion - While decreased range of motion is concerning, limb shortening is a more critical finding indicating a structural injury.
Question 3
The nurse is caring for four clients: Client A, who has emphysema and an oxygen saturation of 94%; Client B, with a postoperative hemoglobin of 8.7 g/dL; Client C, newly admitted with a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L; and Client D, scheduled for an appendectomy with a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3. What intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Increase Client A's oxygen to 4 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
B. Determine if Client B has two units of packed cells available in the blood bank.
C. Ask the dietitian to add a banana to Client C's breakfast tray.
D. Inform Client D that surgery is likely to be delayed until the infection is treated.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Inform Client D that surgery is likely to be delayed until the infection is treated.
The correct answer is D because a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3 indicates an infection, which can be a contraindication for surgery. The nurse should inform Client D that surgery is likely to be delayed until the infection is treated to prevent complications.
Choice A is incorrect as increasing oxygen for Client A may not be necessary based on the oxygen saturation level of 94%, which is within the normal range.
Choice B is incorrect because determining if packed cells are available in the blood bank for Client B with a hemoglobin of 8.7 g/dL does not address the immediate concern of the possible surgical delay due to infection.
Choice C is incorrect as adding a banana to Client C's breakfast tray for a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is not a priority compared to addressing the potential surgical delay for Client D.
Question 4
A child with hemophilia plans on participating in a bicycling club. The nurse should recommend the child
A. Consider a swim club instead of the bicycling club.
B. Wear kneepads, elbow pads, and a helmet while bicycling.
C. Participate only in the social activities of the club.
D. Not join the club.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Wear kneepads, elbow pads, and a helmet while bicycling.
The correct answer is B - Wear kneepads, elbow pads, and a helmet while bicycling. This recommendation is crucial for the safety of the child with hemophilia as it helps prevent injuries and potential bleeding episodes in case of falls. Kneepads and elbow pads provide extra protection to vulnerable joints, while a helmet protects the head from trauma. This allows the child to engage in physical activities like bicycling while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications.
Choice A is incorrect because swimming may also pose a risk of injury, and protective gear is still necessary. Choice C is incorrect as it limits the child's participation and does not address safety concerns. Choice D is incorrect as it unnecessarily restricts the child's social engagement and physical activity without providing an alternative solution.
Question 5
The mother of a 9-month-old who was diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to the first birthday party of a friend's child the following day. What response should the nurse provide this mother?
A. The child can be around other children but should wear a mask at all times.
B. The child will no longer be contagious, no need to take any further precautions.
C. Make sure there are no children under the age of 6 months around the infected child.
D. Do not expose other children. RSV is very contagious even without direct oral contact.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Do not expose other children. RSV is very contagious even without direct oral contact.
The correct answer is D: Do not expose other children. RSV is very contagious even without direct oral contact.
Rationale: RSV is highly contagious and can spread through respiratory droplets, making it important to prevent exposing other children to the virus. Even without direct oral contact, the virus can be transmitted. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid putting other children at risk of contracting RSV.
Summary of other choices:
A: Wearing a mask may not be practical for an infant and may not provide sufficient protection against RSV transmission.
B: RSV can still be contagious for several days after symptoms appear, so the child may still be able to spread the virus.
C: While avoiding infants under 6 months can be a good precaution, all children should be protected from exposure to RSV due to its high contagiousness.
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Question 6
Which of the following is the most common way a diagnosis of anemia is confirmed?
A. Measuring hemoglobin or hematocrit (percentage of red blood cells in total blood volume) levels in a blood sample
B. Measuring performance on a cardiac stress test
C. Measuring the number of red blood cells in a bone marrow sample
D. Visually examining the color of a blood sample
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Measuring hemoglobin or hematocrit levels in a blood sample. This is the most common way to confirm a diagnosis of anemia because anemia is characterized by a decrease in red blood cells or hemoglobin levels. By measuring these levels in a blood sample, healthcare professionals can determine if a patient's red blood cell count is below the normal range, indicating anemia.
Choice B is incorrect because a cardiac stress test measures the heart's ability to respond to external stressors, not related to diagnosing anemia. Choice C is incorrect because measuring the number of red blood cells in a bone marrow sample is not the most common method for confirming anemia. Choice D is incorrect because visually examining the color of a blood sample is not a reliable or accurate method for diagnosing anemia.
A client is exhibiting manifestations of superficial dermatophytosis of the skin with skin scaling and nail disintegration. Based on these findings, the nurse can anticipate that the client will be prescribed: Select all that apply.
A. An antifungal like ketoconazole
B. An antibiotic like tetracycline
C. Topical corticosteroid
D. An antihistamine like Benadryl
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: A - An antifungal like ketoconazole
Rationale: Superficial dermatophytosis is a fungal infection of the skin and nails. Antifungals like ketoconazole are specifically designed to treat fungal infections, including dermatophytosis. They work by targeting and killing the fungus responsible for the infection. Therefore, prescribing an antifungal like ketoconazole would be appropriate in this case.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: An antibiotic like tetracycline - Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections like dermatophytosis.
C: Topical corticosteroid - Corticosteroids are used to reduce inflammation and are not effective against fungal infections.
D: An antihistamine like Benadryl - Antihistamines are used to treat allergic reactions and itching, not fungal infections.
A child has been diagnosed with scabies and the parents are taught about the use of 5% permethrin lotion(Elimite). Which statement by the parents indicates the need for further instruction?
A. Elimite goes from the nape of the neck to the toes, except on the genitals.
B. The lotion is left on until the next day, when a bath is given.
C. This treatment will have to be repeated 1 week after the first.
D. We will give our child a warm soapy bath before applying the lotion.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B. Leaving the lotion on until the next day and giving a bath is incorrect as per the treatment guidelines for scabies. The rationale is that permethrin lotion should be applied on dry skin and left on for 8-14 hours before washing off. This allows the medication to work effectively. Giving a bath right after applying the lotion can wash off the medication prematurely, reducing its efficacy.
A: This statement is correct as it describes the correct application of Elimite from the nape of the neck to the toes, except on the genitals.
C: This statement is correct as scabies treatment often requires a second application one week after the first to ensure all mites are eradicated.
D: This statement is correct as it is recommended to give a warm soapy bath before applying the lotion to clean the skin.
Which intervention is most effective in preventing the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?
A. Wearing gloves
B. Using hand sanitizer
C. Practicing hand hygiene
D. Disinfecting surfaces
Correct answer:
Practicing hand hygiene is the most effective measure to prevent the spread of infection in healthcare settings. While wearing gloves, using hand sanitizer, and disinfecting surfaces are important infection control measures, they are not as effective as proper hand hygiene. Hand hygiene, including handwashing with soap and water or using alcohol-based hand sanitizers, is crucial in preventing the transmission of pathogens from one person to another, making it the best choice among the options provided. Wearing gloves primarily protects the wearer and is not a substitute for hand hygiene. Using hand sanitizer is helpful but may not be as effective as proper handwashing. Disinfecting surfaces is important but does not address the direct transmission of pathogens through hand contact, which hand hygiene effectively prevents.
The nurse is evaluating a 3-day diet history with a client who has an elevated lipid panel. What meal selection indicates the client is managing this condition well with diet?
A. A 4-ounce steak, French fries, iceberg lettuce
B. Baked chicken breast, broccoli, tomatoes
C. Fried catfish, cornbread, peas
D. Spaghetti with meat sauce, garlic bread
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because it includes lean protein (baked chicken breast) and vegetables (broccoli, tomatoes). Lean protein helps lower cholesterol levels, while vegetables provide fiber and antioxidants, which are beneficial for heart health.
A: Steak and French fries are high in saturated fat and unhealthy fats, which can raise cholesterol levels.
C: Fried catfish and cornbread are high in unhealthy fats and carbohydrates, which can worsen lipid panel results.
D: Spaghetti with meat sauce and garlic bread are high in refined carbohydrates and unhealthy fats, which can negatively impact cholesterol levels.
In summary, choice B is the best option as it includes a balanced meal with heart-healthy components, while the other choices contain items that can potentially worsen the client's lipid panel results.
A client is receiving negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) for a diabetic foot ulcer. Which action should the nurse take when changing the dressing?
A. Apply sterile saline to moisten the foam dressing before removal
B. Cut the foam dressing to fit loosely into the wound cavity
C. Secure the transparent film dressing with tape around the edges
D. Disconnect the suction tubing from the foam dressing before turning off the device
Correct answer:
Applying sterile saline to moisten the foam dressing before removal is the correct action during an NPWT dressing change for a diabetic foot ulcer. The foam can adhere to the wound bed, and moistening it with saline prevents trauma, pain, or bleeding upon removal, protecting fragile granulation tissue common in diabetic wounds. Cutting the foam loosely is incorrect; it should fit snugly to ensure even pressure distribution. Securing the film with tape risks air leaks; an adhesive drape extending beyond the edges is standard to maintain the seal. Disconnecting tubing from the foam first disrupts suction prematurely; it should detach from the device first to avoid pressure issues. Moistening with saline is a precise, evidence-based step to safeguard the wound, especially critical in diabetic patients with impaired healing.
A client is receiving negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) for a diabetic foot ulcer. Which action should the nurse take when changing the dressing?
A. Apply sterile saline to moisten the foam dressing before removal
B. Cut the foam dressing to fit loosely into the wound cavity
C. Secure the transparent film dressing with tape around the edges
D. Disconnect the suction tubing from the foam dressing before turning off the device
Correct answer:
Applying sterile saline to moisten the foam dressing before removal is the correct action during an NPWT dressing change for a diabetic foot ulcer. The foam can adhere to the wound bed, and moistening it with saline prevents trauma, pain, or bleeding upon removal, protecting fragile granulation tissue common in diabetic wounds. Cutting the foam loosely is incorrect; it should fit snugly to ensure even pressure distribution. Securing the film with tape risks air leaks; an adhesive drape extending beyond the edges is standard to maintain the seal. Disconnecting tubing from the foam first disrupts suction prematurely; it should detach from the device first to avoid pressure issues. Moistening with saline is a precise, evidence-based step to safeguard the wound, especially critical in diabetic patients with impaired healing.
Appropriate treatment for a patient with cellulitis includes:
A. Petrolatum and vitamins A and D ointment.
B. Antibiotics, such as cephalexin, and over-the-counter analgesics.
C. Weight-bearing exercises and diuretics, such as furosemide.
D. Wet to dry dressings and steroids.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Antibiotics, such as cephalexin, and over-the-counter analgesics. Antibiotics are essential for treating cellulitis, as the condition is usually caused by a bacterial infection. Cephalexin is commonly used due to its effectiveness against the pathogens involved. Over-the-counter analgesics help manage pain and inflammation associated with cellulitis.
A: Petrolatum and vitamins A and D ointment do not address the bacterial infection causing cellulitis and do not provide the necessary treatment.
C: Weight-bearing exercises and diuretics are not appropriate for treating cellulitis, as they do not target the underlying infection.
D: Wet to dry dressings and steroids are not recommended for cellulitis treatment as they do not address the bacterial infection and may even worsen the condition.
The client has acute pancreatitis. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority?
A. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
B. Monitor the client's serum amylase and lipase levels.
C. Encourage oral intake of clear liquids.
D. Assess the client's bowel sounds every 4 hours.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Administer pain medication as prescribed. This is the highest priority because acute pancreatitis is a painful condition, and managing pain is crucial for the client's comfort and well-being. Pain control also helps reduce stress on the pancreas and can aid in preventing complications.
Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring serum amylase and lipase levels is important in diagnosing pancreatitis and assessing response to treatment, it is not the highest priority intervention.
Choice C is incorrect as encouraging oral intake of clear liquids may exacerbate pancreatitis symptoms and lead to further complications.
Choice D is incorrect as assessing bowel sounds, while important for monitoring gastrointestinal function, is not the highest priority in the acute management of pancreatitis.
An occupational health nurse is screening a new employee in a long-term care facility for tuberculosis (TB). The employee questions why purified protein derivative (PPD) testing is done twice. Which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
A. Different medication is used in the second PPD.
B. The treatment for TB is 6 months of medication, and we want to make sure the first results of the first PPD were accurate.
C. The first PPD was not interpreted in the correct time frame of 48-72 hours.
D. There is an increased risk for a false-negative response for people who work in long-term care facilities. The two-step process is recommended to accurately screen for TB.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because there is an increased risk of false-negative responses in individuals who work in long-term care facilities due to frequent exposure to TB. Conducting two PPD tests allows for a more accurate screening as the initial exposure may not trigger an immediate immune response detectable by the first test. By performing the second test, any delayed immune response can be captured, reducing the likelihood of missing an active TB infection.
Option A is incorrect because the same PPD is used for both tests. Option B is incorrect as the rationale for repeating the PPD is not solely to verify the accuracy of the first test but to account for potential delayed immune responses. Option C is incorrect as the time frame for interpreting the PPD is standard and not the reason for performing two tests.
LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 26 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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