LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions set 13

Correct answer:

The correct action for the nurse to take first is to administer prescribed PRN O2 at 4 L/min (Choice B). This is the correct choice because the patient is showing signs of respiratory distress, which could indicate a pulmonary embolism, a potentially life-threatening complication following a femur fracture. Administering oxygen can help improve oxygenation and stabilize the patient's condition. It is essential to address the immediate physiological need for oxygen before taking further action. Staying with the patient and offering reassurance (Choice A) may be important but addressing the respiratory distress is the priority. Checking the patient's legs for swelling or tenderness (Choice C) may help in assessing for a potential deep vein thrombosis, but it is not the most urgent action in this scenario. Notifying the health care provider (Choice D) can be done after stabilizing the patient's condition with oxygen.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is A: Closed bed. A closed bed refers to a bed that is completely made with the bedspread and blankets neatly in place. This term is commonly used in healthcare settings to ensure cleanliness and readiness for the next occupant. Rationale: 1. A closed bed signifies that the bed is fully prepared and is ready for immediate use. 2. It includes tucking in the sheets, smoothing out the blankets, and arranging the pillows. 3. Having a closed bed maintains a neat and organized appearance in the room. 4. It also helps to prevent the accumulation of dust and dirt on the bedding. Summary: B: Open bed - This term refers to a bed that has been partially or fully stripped of its bedding and linens. C: Occupied bed - This term describes a bed that currently has a patient or occupant lying in it. D: Unoccupied bed - This term refers to an empty bed that may or may not have its bedding in place.

Correct answer:

Primary intention,' as it describes Lois Griffin's heart transplant incision made deliberately, closed immediately with sutures post-surgery, promoting rapid healing with minimal scarring. Primary intention applies to clean, intentional wounds with edges approximated right after the procedure, typical in controlled surgical settings. 'Delayed primary intention' involves leaving the wound open briefly before closure, not immediate suturing as here. 'Secondary intention' is for wounds left open to heal naturally, unsuitable for a precise incision. 'Tertiary intention' combines initial openness with later closure, irrelevant to instant suturing. In nursing, primary intention is standard for surgeries like transplants, ensuring quick recovery and infection control. The question's focus on immediate closure rules out alternatives, making A the precise fit per wound healing classifications and surgical care protocols.

Correct answer:

Primary intention,' as it describes Lois Griffin's heart transplant incision made deliberately, closed immediately with sutures post-surgery, promoting rapid healing with minimal scarring. Primary intention applies to clean, intentional wounds with edges approximated right after the procedure, typical in controlled surgical settings. 'Delayed primary intention' involves leaving the wound open briefly before closure, not immediate suturing as here. 'Secondary intention' is for wounds left open to heal naturally, unsuitable for a precise incision. 'Tertiary intention' combines initial openness with later closure, irrelevant to instant suturing. In nursing, primary intention is standard for surgeries like transplants, ensuring quick recovery and infection control. The question's focus on immediate closure rules out alternatives, making A the precise fit per wound healing classifications and surgical care protocols.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is C: Increase fluid intake while taking the drug. Interferon alfa 2b can cause flu-like symptoms such as fever, chills, and muscle aches, leading to dehydration. Increasing fluid intake helps to prevent dehydration and supports the body's ability to manage these side effects. A: Avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug - Although it is generally recommended to limit alcohol consumption while taking medications, this is not specifically related to interferon alfa 2b. B: Continue to maintain maximal physical activity - Excessive physical activity may exacerbate the flu-like symptoms caused by interferon alfa 2b, so it is advisable to avoid overexertion. D: Treat constipation with over-the-counter laxatives - Constipation is not a common side effect of interferon alfa 2b, so using over-the-counter laxatives may not be necessary unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider.

Correct answer:

The epidermis is a dynamic tissue where cells are continuously renewed. The stratum germinativum, the deepest layer, generates new cells via mitosis. These cells migrate upward, differentiating through the spinosum, granulosum, and, in thick skin, lucidum layers, before reaching the stratum corneum as dead, keratinized cells. This process, known as epidermal turnover, takes approximately 15-20 days in healthy adults, though it can vary slightly (e.g., 10-30 days) depending on age, health, and location. A 6-8 week or 12-15 week timeline is far too long for this cellular journey, as it would imply a sluggish renewal rate inconsistent with the skin's protective role. An 8-10 day estimate is too short for full differentiation and migration. The 15-20 day range reflects the balance between cell production and shedding, supported by dermatological studies, ensuring the skin maintains its barrier function efficiently.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is A because malignant melanoma is indeed a very rapid growing and aggressive cancer. This information is crucial for the client to understand the seriousness of the diagnosis and the need for prompt and aggressive treatment. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: B: This cancer usually extends wide and deep but rarely metastasize - This statement is incorrect because malignant melanoma is known to have a high potential for metastasis. C: This cancer is mainly contained to the head and neck area - This statement is incorrect because melanoma can occur on any part of the body, not just limited to the head and neck. D: Your cancer has grown into the deep tissues and quite likely into lymph nodes (stage 3B) - While this choice provides some accurate information about the staging of the cancer, it does not fully address the client's question about the nature of malignant melanoma.

Correct answer:

The epidermis is a dynamic tissue where cells are continuously renewed. The stratum germinativum, the deepest layer, generates new cells via mitosis. These cells migrate upward, differentiating through the spinosum, granulosum, and, in thick skin, lucidum layers, before reaching the stratum corneum as dead, keratinized cells. This process, known as epidermal turnover, takes approximately 15-20 days in healthy adults, though it can vary slightly (e.g., 10-30 days) depending on age, health, and location. A 6-8 week or 12-15 week timeline is far too long for this cellular journey, as it would imply a sluggish renewal rate inconsistent with the skin's protective role. An 8-10 day estimate is too short for full differentiation and migration. The 15-20 day range reflects the balance between cell production and shedding, supported by dermatological studies, ensuring the skin maintains its barrier function efficiently.

Correct answer:

The epidermis is a dynamic tissue where cells are continuously renewed. The stratum germinativum, the deepest layer, generates new cells via mitosis. These cells migrate upward, differentiating through the spinosum, granulosum, and, in thick skin, lucidum layers, before reaching the stratum corneum as dead, keratinized cells. This process, known as epidermal turnover, takes approximately 15-20 days in healthy adults, though it can vary slightly (e.g., 10-30 days) depending on age, health, and location. A 6-8 week or 12-15 week timeline is far too long for this cellular journey, as it would imply a sluggish renewal rate inconsistent with the skin's protective role. An 8-10 day estimate is too short for full differentiation and migration. The 15-20 day range reflects the balance between cell production and shedding, supported by dermatological studies, ensuring the skin maintains its barrier function efficiently.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is A: Encourage the client and family to be active partners in the management of immunodeficiency. This is the priority action because involving the client and family in the management of the condition promotes adherence to treatment, enhances understanding of the disease process, and encourages active participation in care decisions. This collaborative approach can lead to better outcomes and a more favorable prognosis. Choice B is incorrect because managing activity levels and activities of daily living, while important, may not directly address the immunodeficiency itself. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring fluid balance, although crucial for overall health, may not be the priority in managing immunodeficiency. Choice D is incorrect because adjusting medication dosages should be done under the guidance of healthcare professionals, and it is not the nurse's primary role to ensure this.