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LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 19

LPN exams · medical-surgical

LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions set 19

You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five medical-surgical questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

A client is admitted to the hospital with a burn injury covering $30% of the body surface area. The nurse anticipates that the client will require which type of dressing for wound care?

  1. A. Hydrocolloid dressing
  2. B. Hydrogel dressing
  3. C. Alginate dressing
  4. D. Silver dressing
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Silver dressing

Silver dressing is the correct answer because it's ideal for burn injuries covering 30% of the body surface area due to its antimicrobial properties, reducing infection risk a major concern in burns where skin barriers are compromised. Silver ions kill bacteria, manage pain, inflammation, and odor, supporting healing in high-risk wounds. Hydrocolloid dressing is occlusive, suited for minimal-drainage wounds, but can trap bacteria in infected or heavily exudative burns, risking maceration. Hydrogel dressing hydrates dry wounds but lacks sufficient absorption for burn exudate and isn't antimicrobial, making it less suitable. Alginate dressing absorbs heavy exudate but isn't ideal for dry or minimally draining burns and lacks inherent infection control. Given the burn's extent and infection vulnerability, silver dressing offers the best protective and therapeutic benefits.

Question 2

The nurse is caring for a young adult woman taking immune modulating medications who has been advised to use barrier contraceptives but she wants to start her family. What information can the nurse provide about these drugs to help this patient with her decision-making?

  1. A. Discuss the desire to start a family with the provider so risk can be minimized.
  2. B. Immune modulating drugs will need to be discontinued if pregnancy occurs.
  3. C. Immune modulating drugs have been proven to be highly teratogenic.
  4. D. Pregnancy is not an option when taking immune modulating drugs but adoption is an option.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Discuss the desire to start a family with the provider so risk can be minimized.

Rationale: A: Correct. The nurse should advise the patient to discuss her desire to start a family with her healthcare provider. By doing so, the provider can assess the risks, adjust the medication regimen if necessary, and provide guidance on how to proceed safely during pregnancy. B: Incorrect. Discontinuing immune modulating drugs abruptly can have negative consequences on the patient's health. It is important to have a healthcare provider manage any necessary adjustments to the medication. C: Incorrect. While some immune modulating drugs may have potential risks during pregnancy, not all are highly teratogenic. Each drug should be evaluated individually. D: Incorrect. While pregnancy may require adjustments to the medication regimen, it is not necessarily ruled out as an option. Adoption is a personal choice and should not be presented as the only alternative.

Question 3

The skin fibres are arranged in bundles known as:

  1. A. zone of hyperaemia
  2. B. lines of cleavage
  3. C. epidermal ridges
  4. D. stratum lucidum
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — lines of cleavage

Skin fibers, primarily collagen in the dermis, are arranged in bundles called lines of cleavage (or Langer's lines). These parallel alignments reflect the natural tension and orientation of collagen and elastic fibers in the reticular dermis, giving skin strength and flexibility. Surgeons use these lines for incisions, as cuts along them heal with less scarring due to minimal fiber disruption. The zone of hyperaemia is a region of increased blood flow, not a fiber structure. Epidermal ridges, on the epidermis, form fingerprints from dermal papillae, not fiber bundles. The stratum lucidum, an epidermal layer in thick skin, consists of dead cells, not fibers. Lines of cleavage are a dermal feature, visible in histological sections as organized collagen, critical for skin's mechanical properties and surgical outcomes, distinguishing them from epidermal or vascular terms.

Question 4

The nurse needs to change a dressing on the client's abdomen. Which of the following techniques should be implemented?

  1. A. Contact precautions
  2. B. Standard precautions
  3. C. Droplet precautions
  4. D. Airborne precautions
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Standard precautions

The correct answer is B: Standard precautions. Standard precautions should be implemented when changing a dressing on a client's abdomen as it includes hand hygiene, gloves, and appropriate personal protective equipment based on the risk of exposure to blood or body fluids. This technique helps prevent the spread of infection and ensures the safety of both the nurse and the client. A: Contact precautions are used for clients with specific infections that can be transmitted by direct contact. C: Droplet precautions are for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets. D: Airborne precautions are for infections transmitted via small particles that remain in the air for a long time. In summary, Standard precautions are the most appropriate technique for changing a dressing on a client's abdomen as they provide a comprehensive approach to infection prevention.

Question 5

The sebaceous glands in the skin produce:

  1. A. milk
  2. B. oil
  3. C. sweat
  4. D. cerumen
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — oil

Sebaceous glands, found in the dermis near hair follicles, produce sebum, an oily substance. Sebum, a mix of lipids like triglycerides and wax esters, lubricates hair and skin, preventing dryness and offering minor antimicrobial protection. It's secreted via a holocrine process cells disintegrate to release it into follicles, then to the skin surface. Milk is produced by mammary glands, modified sweat glands, not sebaceous ones. Sweat comes from eccrine and apocrine glands, distinct from sebaceous function, with water and salts, not oil. Cerumen (earwax) is made by ceruminous glands in the ear canal, a specialized sebaceous type, but not typical skin sebaceous glands. Sebum's oily nature distinguishes it, supporting skin flexibility and waterproofing, a role confirmed by histological and physiological studies of gland activity, setting it apart from other secretions.

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Ten more LPN exams medical-surgical questions

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Question 6

The sebaceous glands in the skin produce:

  1. A. milk
  2. B. oil
  3. C. sweat
  4. D. cerumen
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 7

The sebaceous glands in the skin produce:

  1. A. milk
  2. B. oil
  3. C. sweat
  4. D. cerumen
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 8

A client is receiving negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) for a chronic wound on the lower leg. The nurse observes that the wound edges are approximated and granulation tissue is filling the wound bed. Which action should the nurse take?

  1. A. Increase the frequency of dressing changes
  2. B. Decrease the amount of negative pressure applied
  3. C. Discontinue the NPWT and apply a moist dressing
  4. D. Continue the NPWT until the wound is completely closed
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Question 9

A client is receiving negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) for a chronic wound on the lower leg. The nurse observes that the wound edges are approximated and granulation tissue is filling the wound bed. Which action should the nurse take?

  1. A. Increase the frequency of dressing changes
  2. B. Decrease the amount of negative pressure applied
  3. C. Discontinue the NPWT and apply a moist dressing
  4. D. Continue the NPWT until the wound is completely closed
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Question 10

A patient complains of shoulder pain when the nurse moves the patient’s arm behind the back. Which question should the nurse ask?

  1. A. Are you able to feed yourself without difficulty?
  2. B. Do you have difficulty when you are putting on a shirt?
  3. C. Are you able to sleep through the night without waking?
  4. D. Do you ever have trouble lowering yourself to the toilet?
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Question 11

The nurse instructs a patient who has osteosarcoma of the tibia about a scheduled above-the-knee amputation. Which statement by a patient indicates additional patient teaching is needed?

  1. A. “I will need to participate in physical therapy after surgery.”
  2. B. “I wish I did not need to have chemotherapy after this surgery.”
  3. C. “I did not have this bone cancer until my leg broke a week ago.”
  4. D. “I can use the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) to manage postoperative pain.”
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Question 12

What is the correct order of steps needed for 2nd generation sequencing?

  1. A. DNA fragmentation, DNA isolation, amplification, primer ligation, sequencing
  2. B. Amplification, primer ligation, sequencing, DNA fragmentation, DNA isolation
  3. C. DNA isolation, DNA fragmentation, primer ligation, amplification, sequencing
  4. D. Sequencing, DNA isolation, DNA fragmentation, primer ligation, amplification
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Question 13

What is the benefit of inducing mild hypothermia to a post-arrest patient who has a return of spontaneous circulation?

  1. A. Hypothermia reduces the body's need for stored energy (sugar) to maintain homeostasis
  2. B. Hypothermia increases blood flow to the brain and heart while reducing blood flow to the peripheral tissues
  3. C. It reduces intracranial pressure, the cerebral metabolic rate, and the brain's demand for oxygen
  4. D. It reduces the amount of oxygen and blood circulation needed to supply the tissues of the periphery
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Question 14

The papillary layer of the dermis is most closely associated with which layer of the epidermis?

  1. A. stratum spinosum
  2. B. stratum corneum
  3. C. stratum granulosum
  4. D. stratum basale
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Question 15

The papillary layer of the dermis is most closely associated with which layer of the epidermis?

  1. A. stratum spinosum
  2. B. stratum corneum
  3. C. stratum granulosum
  4. D. stratum basale
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

About these LPN exams medical-surgical questions

LPN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 19 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

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