LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 17

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LPN exams fundamentals practice questions set 17

You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five fundamentals questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

Which statement is correct about the origin of a muscle?

  1. A. It is the movable bone and less proximal than the insertion
  2. B. It is the immovable bone and more proximal than the insertion
  3. C. It is always attached to an aponeurosis
  4. D. It is the movable bone and more proximal than the insertion
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — It is the immovable bone and more proximal than the insertion

A muscle's origin is its fixed attachment, typically the less movable bone, often more proximal (closer to the body's midline) in limb muscles. For example, the biceps brachii originates at the scapula (immovable relative to the arm) and inserts on the radius (movable). This anchors contraction, pulling the insertion toward the origin. 'Immovable' is relative bones shift slightly but the origin resists movement more, leveraging skeletal stability. Proximal positioning aligns with anatomical convention in limbs, though exceptions (e.g., abdominal muscles) exist. Aponeuroses, flat tendon sheets, may connect origins (e.g., rectus abdominis), but aren't universal. Movable origins contradict biomechanical principles: muscles shorten toward a stable point. Less proximal origins occur in rare cases, but the standard confirmed by dissection and kinesiology prioritizes the immovable, proximal end. This framework governs force direction, distinguishing origin from insertion in movement analysis.

Question 2

During a visit to the clinic, a patient states, 'The doctor just told me he thought I ought to stop smoking. He doesn't understand how hard I've tried. I just don't know the best way to do it. What should I do?' The nurse's most appropriate response in this case would be:

  1. A. I'd quit if I were you. The doctor really knows what he is talking about.'
  2. B. Would you like some information about the different ways a person can quit smoking?'
  3. C. Stopping your dependence on cigarettes can be very difficult. I understand how you feel.'
  4. D. Why are you confused? Didn't the doctor give you the information about the smoking cessation program we offer?'
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Would you like some information about the different ways a person can quit smoking?'

The correct answer is B: "Would you like some information about the different ways a person can quit smoking?" Rationale: 1. Empathy: This response shows empathy by acknowledging the patient's struggle and offering support. 2. Patient-Centered Care: By asking if the patient would like information, the nurse involves the patient in decision-making. 3. Education: Providing information about quitting smoking empowers the patient to make an informed choice. 4. Non-judgmental: This response avoids judgment or pressure, which can help the patient feel more comfortable seeking help. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: This response is directive and lacks empathy, potentially making the patient feel judged or pressured. C: While empathetic, this response does not offer practical help or information to address the patient's concerns. D: This response is confrontational and assumes the patient should already know about the smoking cessation program, which may come across as dismissive.

Question 3

A 40-year-old mother of two presents to your office for consultation. She is interested in knowing what her relative risks are for developing breast cancer. She is concerned because her sister had unilateral breast cancer 6 years ago at age 38. The patient reports on her history that she began having periods at age 11 and has been fairly regular ever since, except during her two pregnancies. Her first child arrived when she was 26 and her second at age 28. Otherwise she has had no health problems. Her father has high blood pressure. Her mother had unilateral breast cancer in her 70s. The patient denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. She is a family law attorney and is married. Her examination is essentially unremarkable. Which risk factor of her personal and family history most puts her in danger of getting breast cancer?

  1. A. First-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer
  2. B. Age at menarche of less than 12
  3. C. First live birth between the ages of 25 and 29
  4. D. First-degree relative with postmenopausal breast cancer
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — First-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer

The correct answer is A: First-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer. This is the most significant risk factor for the patient because her sister had unilateral breast cancer at a young age of 38, which indicates a potential genetic predisposition. Having a first-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer significantly increases the patient's risk due to shared genetic factors. The other choices are less significant: B: Age at menarche of less than 12 is a risk factor, but not as significant as a family history of breast cancer. C: First live birth between the ages of 25 and 29 is actually a protective factor against breast cancer, as early pregnancies can reduce the risk. D: First-degree relative with postmenopausal breast cancer is a risk factor, but premenopausal breast cancer in a first-degree relative is a stronger indicator of genetic risk. In summary, the patient's highest risk factor for developing breast cancer is having a first-degree relative with

Question 4

A perioperative nurse is caring for a postoperative patient. The patient has a shallow respiratory pattern and is reluctant to cough or to begin mobilizing. The nurse should address the patients increased risk for what complication?

  1. A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
  2. B. Atelectasis
  3. C. Aspiration
  4. D. Pulmonary embolism
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Atelectasis

A shallow, monotonous respiratory pattern and reluctance to cough or mobilize post-surgery significantly increase the risk of atelectasis, which is the collapse of alveoli due to inadequate lung expansion. This condition arises when patients avoid deep breathing or movement, leading to reduced ventilation and potential airway obstruction by mucus. Unlike ARDS, which involves a severe inflammatory response often triggered by trauma or infection, atelectasis is more directly linked to immobility and shallow breathing. Aspiration, while a risk in postoperative patients, typically occurs due to inhalation of foreign material like vomit, not just shallow breathing. Pulmonary embolism, a blockage in the pulmonary artery usually by a clot, is less directly tied to these specific symptoms and more associated with circulatory issues like deep vein thrombosis. Thus, the nurse's priority is preventing atelectasis by encouraging coughing and mobility to maintain airway patency and lung expansion.

Question 5

Which choice below indicates the proper order in decreasing size?

  1. A. muscle, fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril
  2. B. muscle, muscle fiber, fascicle, myofibril
  3. C. muscle, fascicle, myofibril, muscle fiber
  4. D. fascicle, muscle, muscle fiber, myofibril
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — muscle, fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril

Muscle structure follows a hierarchy from largest to smallest: the whole muscle (e.g., biceps), encased by epimysium, contains fascicles bundles of fibers wrapped in perimysium. Each fascicle holds muscle fibers, single elongated cells in endomysium, visible under light microscopy. Within fibers, myofibrils, rod-like organelles, house sarcomeres, the contractile units. This sequence muscle (centimeters), fascicle (millimeters), fiber (micrometers), myofibril (nanometers) reflects anatomical nesting. Reversing fascicle and fiber misaligns bundles with cells, while placing myofibrils before fibers ignores their intracellular role. A whole muscle, spanning bone to bone, dwarfs fascicles (10-100 fibers), which outsize fibers (10-100 micrometers wide), containing hundreds of myofibrils. Dissection and electron microscopy confirm this descending scale, critical for understanding force transmission from sarcomeres to gross movement, distinguishing organizational levels in muscle physiology.

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Question 6

In an interview, the nurse may find it necessary to take notes to aid his or her memory later. Which statement is true regarding note-taking?

  1. A. Note-taking may impede the nurse's observation of the patient's nonverbal behaviors.
  2. B. Note-taking allows the patient to continue at his or her own pace as the nurse records what is said.
  3. C. Note-taking allows the nurse to shift attention away from the patient, resulting in an increased comfort level.
  4. D. Note-taking allows the nurse to break eye contact with the patient, which may increase his or her level of comfort.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 7

What is the disadvantage of computerized documentation of the nursing process?

  1. A. Accuracy
  2. B. Legibility
  3. C. Concern for privacy
  4. D. Rapid communication
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Question 8

A patient who is expecting her first baby tells the nurse, “I am afraid of the whole birth experience and plan to ask the doctor for a cesarean delivery.” Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

  1. A. I will get you some material about how labor pain is managed.
  2. B. Most women avoid cesarean births unless it is an emergency.
  3. C. I suggest you talk with the physician and get another opinion.
  4. D. Cesarean will cause you issues with additional pregnancies.
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Question 9

Evidence-based care emphasizes decision making based on the best available evidence and:

  1. A. Use of outcome studies to guide decisions
  2. B. Specialty knowledge
  3. C. Traditional medical model
  4. D. Economic concerns
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Question 10

The nurse is precepting a student nurse and explains that perioperative nursing care occurs

  1. A. Before, during, and after surgery
  2. B. In preadmission testing
  3. C. During the surgical procedure
  4. D. In the postanesthesia care unit
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Question 11

A nurse who stops a blood transfusion when a patient develops a reaction is said to be:

  1. A. A complex critical thinker
  2. B. A rule-oriented thinker
  3. C. A basic critical thinker
  4. D. A committed thinker
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Question 12

Which of the following patients best fits the criteria for a critical burn?

  1. A. A 10-year-old patient with superficial burns over 60% of the body
  2. B. A 15-year-old patient with full-thickness burns on the left upper/lower arm, non-circumferential
  3. C. A 60-year-old patient with partial-thickness burns across 25% of the body, not involving the hands, feet, face, or genitals
  4. D. A 20-year-old patient with partial-thickness burns on 25% of the body, not including the hands, feet, face, or genitals
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Question 13

To prepare a patient for a thoracentesis, the nurse should:

  1. A. Remind the patient to eat or drink nothing for six hours before the procedure
  2. B. Ask the patient to sign a consent form for the procedure
  3. C. Position the patient on the side of the bed leaning over the bedside table
  4. D. Pull the privacy curtain and dim the lights of the room
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Question 14

Which of the following are examples of breaches of patient confidentiality? Select all that apply.

  1. A. A nurse discusses a patient with a coworker in the elevator.
  2. B. A nurse shares her computer password with a relative of a patient.
  3. C. A nurse checks the medical record of a patient to see who should be called in an emergency.
  4. D. A nurse updates the employer of a patient regarding the patients return to work.
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Question 15

You are called to assist a 44-year-old male who was struck in the head with a large socket wrench at work. On arrival, the patient is conscious but confused; he complains he developed a sudden-onset severe headache moments after a wrench slipped off under pressure striking him in the temporal region of the skull. Co-workers state he was unconscious with abnormal posturing for about three minutes prior to EMS arrival. He states the headache went from the worst headache of his life to a dull throbbing headache and new-onset dizziness and nausea. His pupils are unequal with the right eye sluggish to respond while his grips remain equal but weak. As you continue your evaluation, he suddenly develops projectile vomiting and loses consciousness. Which of the following injuries is most likely to cause his presentation?

  1. A. Subdural hematoma
  2. B. Epidural hematoma
  3. C. Subarachnoid hematoma
  4. D. Intracerebral hematoma
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About these LPN exams fundamentals questions

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 17 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.