You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?
A. Clarify the client's consent through the use of gestures and simple terms
B. Have the interpreter co-sign the consent to validate the client's understanding
C. Ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion
D. Have the client sign the consent form and the nurse witness the signature
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Have the interpreter co-sign the consent to validate the client's understanding
Having the interpreter co-sign the consent form is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By having the interpreter co-sign, it ensures an additional layer of verification of the client's understanding and consent, which is crucial when language barriers exist. This step adds a level of confirmation to safeguard that the client's consent is both valid and well-informed. Option A is not sufficient as gestures and simple terms may not fully clarify the client's understanding, especially for complex medical procedures. Option C is unnecessary since the interpreter has already confirmed the client's consent. Option D does not involve the interpreter in validating the client's understanding, which is essential in this situation to ensure effective communication and comprehension between the client and the healthcare team.
Question 2
A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Encourage deep breathing exercises.
B. Encourage fluid intake.
C. Encourage the patient to rest.
D. Encourage the patient to use a peak flow meter.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Encourage the patient to rest.
The priority nursing intervention for a patient with COPD is to encourage the patient to rest (Choice C). This is because in COPD, the patient often experiences difficulty breathing, leading to increased work of breathing and fatigue. Rest allows the patient to conserve energy, reduce oxygen demand, and prevent exacerbation of symptoms. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice A) may be beneficial for lung expansion but can also increase the work of breathing and lead to fatigue. While fluid intake (Choice B) is important for overall health, it is not the priority in managing acute COPD exacerbation. Using a peak flow meter (Choice D) is more relevant for monitoring asthma rather than COPD. Thus, the correct answer is C as it addresses the immediate need to reduce the patient's respiratory workload and promote recovery.
Question 3
Which of the following findings is most concerning in a patient with chest pain?
A. A burning sensation after eating
B. Pain that improves with rest
C. Shortness of breath and diaphoresis
D. Pain that worsens with palpation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Shortness of breath and diaphoresis
The correct answer is C. Shortness of breath and diaphoresis are concerning symptoms in a patient with chest pain as they may indicate a serious cardiac event like a heart attack. Shortness of breath suggests possible heart or lung involvement, while diaphoresis (excessive sweating) can be a sign of significant stress on the body. These symptoms warrant immediate medical attention to rule out life-threatening conditions.
Choice A, a burning sensation after eating, is more suggestive of acid reflux or indigestion and is not typically associated with acute cardiac issues. Choice B, pain that improves with rest, is more indicative of musculoskeletal or non-cardiac causes of chest pain. Choice D, pain that worsens with palpation, is more likely related to musculoskeletal or chest wall issues rather than a cardiac emergency.
Question 4
Which of the following is one way that a nursing assistant can protect himself while working in a facility?
A. The NA should keep his valuable belongings locked up at work.
B. The NA should only share resident's information with his closest friends.
C. The NA should limit visitors in a resident's room to not more than 10.
D. The NA should report unsafe situations or people to a supervisor.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — The NA should report unsafe situations or people to a supervisor.
The correct answer is D: The NA should report unsafe situations or people to a supervisor. This is the correct answer because it emphasizes the importance of prioritizing safety in the workplace. By reporting unsafe situations or people, the nursing assistant can help prevent potential harm to themselves and others. It also demonstrates professionalism and adherence to ethical standards.
Choice A is incorrect because keeping valuable belongings locked up does not directly relate to protecting oneself while working in a facility. Choice B is incorrect because sharing residents' information with friends violates confidentiality and can lead to legal consequences. Choice C is incorrect because limiting visitors in a resident's room does not necessarily protect the nursing assistant from potential risks within the facility.
Question 5
Diltiazem (Cardizem) is prescribed for a patient with newly diagnosed Prinzmetal’s (variant) angina. Which action of diltiazem is accurate for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?
A. Reduces heart palpitations.
B. Prevents coronary artery plaque.
C. Decreases coronary artery spasms.
D. Increases contractile force of the heart.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Decreases coronary artery spasms.
The correct answer is C: Decreases coronary artery spasms. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that works by relaxing and dilating coronary arteries, thereby reducing spasms in Prinzmetal's angina. This action helps to improve blood flow to the heart muscle and alleviate chest pain.
Choice A is incorrect because diltiazem does not directly reduce heart palpitations. Choice B is incorrect because diltiazem does not prevent coronary artery plaque buildup. Choice D is incorrect because diltiazem does not increase the contractile force of the heart; in fact, it may actually decrease contractility due to its negative inotropic effects.
In summary, the accurate action of diltiazem in the context of Prinzmetal's angina is to decrease coronary artery spasms, which improves blood flow to the heart and relieves chest pain.
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Question 6
The external female reproductive organs include
A. the vagina, the clitoris, and the mons pubis
B. the hymen, the vaginal opening, and the uterus
C. the vaginal opening, the labia majora, and the clitoris
D. the hymen, the ovaries, and the clitoris
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because the external female reproductive organs typically include the vaginal opening, the labia majora, and the clitoris. The vaginal opening is where sperm enters and a baby exits during childbirth. The labia majora are the outer folds of skin that protect the vaginal and urethral openings. The clitoris is a highly sensitive sexual organ that plays a key role in sexual pleasure.
Option A is incorrect because it includes the mons pubis, which is not considered an external reproductive organ. Option B is incorrect because it includes the hymen, which is a thin membrane that may partially cover the vaginal opening but is not a consistent external organ. Option D is incorrect because it includes the ovaries, which are internal organs responsible for producing eggs, not external reproductive organs.
Three members of a therapy group share covert glances as other members of the group describe problems. When one makes a statement that subtly criticizes another speaker, the others nod in agreement. Which group dynamic should the leader suspect?
A. Some members are acting as a subgroup instead of as members of the main group.
B. Some of the members have become bored and are disregarding others.
C. Three members are showing their frustration with slower members.
D. The leadership of the group has been ineffective.
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Subgroup formation: The covert glances and subtle criticism indicate a potential subgroup forming within the therapy group.
2. Lack of inclusivity: The behavior suggests that these members are excluding others and forming a separate clique.
3. Disruptive dynamics: Subgroups can disrupt the cohesion and effectiveness of the main group.
4. Nodding in agreement: This behavior reinforces the idea of a separate subgroup agreeing with each other.
Summary:
B: Disregarding others due to boredom does not explain the specific behaviors observed.
C: Frustration with slower members would manifest differently and would not involve covert glances and subtle criticism.
D: Ineffectiveness of leadership may contribute to subgroup formation, but it does not directly explain the observed behaviors.
You are preparing to initiate a rapid sequence intubation on a pediatric patient who is exhibiting a borderline hypotensive state with a decreased level of consciousness and hypoventilation. He is quickly becoming hypoxic with a SpO2 of 77% and a delayed capillary refill. Which medication would be most effective in sedating this patient for the procedure?
A. Succinylcholine
B. Midazolam
C. Ketamine
D. Propofol
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Ketamine. Ketamine is the most effective choice for sedating this pediatric patient for rapid sequence intubation due to its properties of providing sedation, analgesia, and maintenance of airway reflexes. Its rapid onset and short duration of action make it ideal for this situation. Additionally, ketamine can help maintain the patient's blood pressure and respiratory drive, which is crucial in a borderline hypotensive state with hypoventilation.
Succinylcholine (A) is a paralytic agent and does not provide sedation or analgesia, so it would not address the patient's need for sedation. Midazolam (B) and Propofol (D) are sedatives but may cause respiratory depression and hypotension, which could worsen the patient's condition. Therefore, they are not the most appropriate choices in this scenario.
A patient states, "I feel detached and weird all the time. It is as though I am looking at life through a cloudy window. Everything seems unreal. It really messes up things at work and school." This scenario is most suggestive of which health problem?
A. Acute stress disorder
B. Dissociative amnesia
C. Depersonalization disorder
D. Disinhibited social engagement disorder
Correct answer:
Depersonalization disorder involves a persistent or recurrent experience of feeling detached from and outside oneself. Although reality testing is intact, the experience causes significant impairment in social or occupational functioning and distress to the individual. Dissociative amnesia involves memory loss. Children with disinhibited social engagement disorder demonstrate no normal fear of strangers and are unusually willing to go off with strangers. Individuals with ASD (Acute Stress Disorder) experience three or more dissociative symptoms associated with a traumatic event, such as a subjective sense of numbing, detachment, or absence of emotional responsiveness; a reduction in awareness of surroundings; derealization; depersonalization or dissociative amnesia. In the scenario, the patient experiences only one symptom.
How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with a suspected stroke?
A. Monitor for changes in neurological status and administer thrombolytics
B. Monitor for speech difficulties and administer oxygen
C. Provide IV fluids and monitor blood pressure
D. Administer pain relief and monitor for respiratory failure
Correct answer:
Corrected Rationale: When managing a patient with a suspected stroke, it is crucial to monitor for changes in neurological status as this can provide important information about the patient's condition. Administering thrombolytics, if indicated, is a critical intervention in the acute phase of an ischemic stroke to help dissolve blood clots and restore blood flow to the brain. This choice is the correct answer because it addresses the immediate management needs of a patient with a suspected stroke. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while monitoring for speech difficulties, administering oxygen, providing IV fluids, monitoring blood pressure, administering pain relief, and monitoring for respiratory failure are important aspects of patient care, they are not the primary interventions for managing a suspected stroke.
The nurse plans to collect a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the adult male client?
A. Urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours.
B. Cleanse around the meatus, discard the first portion of voiding, and collect the rest in a sterile bottle.
C. For the next 24 hours, notify the nurse when the bladder is full, and the nurse will collect catheterized specimens.
D. Urinate immediately into a urinal, and the lab will collect the specimen every 6 hours for the next 24 hours.
Correct answer:
The correct instruction for the adult male client to follow when collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test is to urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours. This method ensures proper collection for an accurate creatinine clearance measurement. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different procedure for a clean-catch urine sample, not suitable for creatinine clearance. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests catheterization, which is not typically done for a creatinine clearance test, and it is not necessary for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as it does not follow the standard procedure for a 24-hour urine collection for creatinine clearance; the urine should be collected continuously over 24 hours, not at specified intervals.
What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?
A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
C. Encourage protein-rich foods to improve nutrition
D. Increase calcium-rich foods in the diet
Correct answer:
The correct answer is to limit phosphorus and potassium intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. In renal insufficiency, the kidneys struggle to excrete these minerals, leading to their buildup in the blood, which can be harmful. Limiting phosphorus and potassium intake helps prevent further kidney damage and manage the progression of chronic kidney disease. Encouraging protein-rich foods (Choice C) may be counterproductive as excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Increasing potassium-rich foods (Choice A) is incorrect as high potassium levels can be detrimental in kidney disease. Increasing calcium-rich foods (Choice D) is not typically a focus in dietary teaching for chronic kidney disease unless there is a specific deficiency or need, as excessive calcium intake can also be harmful to kidney function.
When transferring a client to a long-term care facility, what information should the nurse include in the handoff report?
A. Frequency of previous vital sign measurements
B. Number of family members who have visited
C. Time of the client's last bath
D. Effectiveness of the last dose of pain medication
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: 'Effectiveness of the last dose of pain medication.' When transferring a client to a long-term care facility, it is crucial to provide information on the effectiveness of the last dose of pain medication to ensure continuity of care and appropriate pain management. This information helps the receiving facility understand the client's current pain status and plan future interventions accordingly. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant for the handoff report in this scenario. The frequency of previous vital sign measurements may be important, but the immediate effectiveness of pain medication takes precedence. The number of family members who have visited and the time of the client's last bath are not as critical for the receiving facility's immediate care planning compared to pain management details.
While the nurse is changing the ties on a tracheostomy collar, the patient coughs, dislodging
A. What is the nurse's first nursing action?
B. Press the emergency response button.
C. Place the patient on a face mask delivering 100% oxygen.
D. Insert a spare tracheostomy without the obturator.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: What is the nurse's first nursing action? In this scenario, the nurse's first priority is to assess the patient's airway and breathing. By asking "What is the nurse's first nursing action?" the nurse can quickly assess the situation and determine if further intervention is needed.
Choice B (Press the emergency response button) is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to assess the patient's airway. Choice C (Place the patient on a face mask delivering 100% oxygen) is incorrect as it assumes the patient's airway is compromised and does not address the need to assess first. Choice D (Insert a spare tracheostomy without the obturator) is also incorrect as this action should only be taken if the tracheostomy tube is completely dislodged and the nurse has assessed that it is necessary.
Which laboratory test is the most accurate indicator of a client's renal function?
A. Blood urea nitrogen
B. Creatinine clearance
C. Serum creatinine
D. Urinalysis
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Creatinine clearance. Creatinine clearance is the most accurate indicator of renal function because it measures the rate at which the kidneys filter creatinine from the blood. This test provides a direct assessment of the glomerular filtration rate, which reflects overall kidney function.
A: Blood urea nitrogen is influenced by factors other than renal function, such as protein intake and liver function, making it less specific for assessing renal function.
C: Serum creatinine is commonly used to estimate renal function, but it can be affected by factors like muscle mass and hydration status, leading to potential inaccuracies.
D: Urinalysis provides valuable information about kidney health but does not directly measure the filtration capacity of the kidneys like creatinine clearance does.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 93 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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