You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Why would a nurse establish goals for a client diagnosed with ADHD that allow the client to complete part of the task, rewarding each step completion with a break for physical activity?
A. Short-term goals are not so overwhelming for clients with a short attention span.
B. Repetition of instructions helps to determine the client's level of comprehension.
C. This encourages the client to perform independently while providing a feeling of security.
D. The client lacks the ability to assimilate information that is complicated or has abstract meaning.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Short-term goals are not so overwhelming for clients with a short attention span.
The correct answer is A because breaking down tasks into smaller, manageable steps is beneficial for clients with ADHD who struggle with a short attention span. By setting short-term goals, the client is more likely to stay focused and motivated as they can see progress more frequently. This approach helps prevent the feeling of being overwhelmed by a large task.
Choice B is incorrect because repetition of instructions is not directly related to breaking down tasks into smaller steps for better focus in ADHD clients. Choice C is incorrect because while the approach encourages independence, it does not specifically address the issue of managing a short attention span. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the client's ability to assimilate information rather than the strategy of setting achievable goals for individuals with ADHD.
Question 2
Exchange of gases takes place in which of the following organ?
A. Kidney
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Heart
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Lungs
Gas exchange refers to the physiological process where oxygen is absorbed into the bloodstream and carbon dioxide is expelled from it, occurring primarily in the lungs (B). This happens in the alveoli, tiny air sacs where oxygen diffuses into pulmonary capillaries and carbon dioxide moves out to be exhaled. The kidneys (A) regulate fluid and electrolyte balance, not gas exchange. The liver (C) metabolizes nutrients and detoxifies substances but has no role in respiration. The heart (D) pumps blood, facilitating circulation, but does not perform gas exchange. The lungs' unique structure alveoli surrounded by capillaries enables efficient diffusion driven by concentration gradients, making B the correct answer. This process is vital for oxygenation of tissues and removal of metabolic waste, underscoring the lungs' respiratory function.
Question 3
A nurse has recently transferred to a labor and delivery unit. During a scheduled cesarean, the nurse notices a prescription for the administration of 1,000 mL of prewarmed IV fluid. For which reason does the health care provider prescribe the fluid in this manner? Select all that apply.
A. Results in an increased maternal core temperature
B. Results in improved neonatal umbilical arterial pH
C. Results in improved Apgar scores
D. Results in decreased risk for maternal shock
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Results in an increased maternal core temperature
Step 1: IV fluid is prewarmed to prevent hypothermia in the mother during cesarean delivery, which can occur due to exposure to cold operating room environment.
Step 2: Hypothermia in the mother can lead to adverse outcomes such as increased blood loss, delayed wound healing, and increased risk of infection.
Step 3: Maintaining maternal normothermia through prewarmed IV fluids is crucial for optimal maternal outcomes during cesarean delivery.
Summary:
- B: Improved neonatal umbilical arterial pH is not directly related to prewarmed IV fluid administration.
- C: Apgar scores are primarily influenced by factors like neonatal resuscitation and immediate care, not IV fluid temperature.
- D: Prewarmed IV fluid administration is more about preventing hypothermia in the mother rather than decreasing the risk for maternal shock.
Question 4
A nurse identifies ways he/she can improve performance. He/she reflects on his nursing experiences. This is an example of the core critical thinking skill:
A. Self-regulation
B. Analysis
C. Inference
D. Explanation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Self-regulation
Self-regulation in critical thinking involves monitoring and improving one's performance through reflection on experiences, identifying strengths and weaknesses. A nurse reflecting on past care to enhance future practice exemplifies this e.g., adjusting communication after a patient misunderstanding. Analysis breaks down data (e.g., lab results), not necessarily reflecting on personal performance. Inference draws conclusions from evidence (e.g., diagnosing from symptoms), not self-improvement. Explanation justifies actions (e.g., why a drug was given), not introspective growth. Self-regulation's focus on self-assessment and correction aligns with the nurse's reflective process, fostering continuous professional development, a vital skill in nursing for adapting to challenges and ensuring high-quality, patient-centered care over time.
Question 5
The nurse is counseling a couple about infertility. Which piece of assessment data may affect the woman's ability to become pregnant?
A. The woman exercises three times a week for 1 hour.
B. The couple each consumes a glass of wine each night.
C. The couple has a sauna in their backyard.
D. The male partner works on heavy machinery.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — The couple has a sauna in their backyard.
The correct answer is C. Having a sauna in the backyard may affect the woman's ability to become pregnant due to the potential negative impact of excessive heat on sperm production and ovulation. Saunas can raise body temperature, which can be harmful to sperm and reduce fertility.
Explanation of other choices:
A: Regular exercise is generally beneficial for fertility and overall health, so this is unlikely to significantly impact the woman's ability to become pregnant.
B: Consuming a glass of wine each night in moderation is not likely to have a significant impact on fertility unless it leads to excessive alcohol consumption.
D: Working on heavy machinery may pose risks to male fertility due to potential exposure to harmful chemicals or radiation, but this choice doesn't directly impact the woman's ability to become pregnant.
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Question 6
A nurse observes that the past five clients referred from a community clinic have been treated for drug and/or alcohol overdose. Based on this information, the nurse assumes that the clinic specializes in the treatment of substance use. This is an example of what type of reasoning?
A. Deductive reasoning
B. Inductive reasoning
C. General systems theory
D. Nursing process
Correct answer:
Inductive reasoning involves observing specific instances to form a general conclusion, as seen here. The nurse notes five overdose cases from a clinic and infers it specializes in substance use, moving from particular observations to a broader assumption. Deductive reasoning reverses this, applying a general rule (e.g., all overdose clinics specialize) to a specific case, not fitting here. General systems theory analyzes wholes and parts, irrelevant to this logic. The nursing process is a care method, not reasoning. Inductive reasoning's strength lies in pattern recognition, useful in nursing for hypothesis generation like identifying care trends but risks overgeneralization without further data. It shapes initial assessments, guiding deeper inquiry into the clinic's role, reflecting nurses' adaptive thinking in real-world settings.
A client with heart failure says to the nurse, 'I don't see why I have to watch what I eat because my heart is already damaged.' Which nursing response promotes the client's health?
A. Watching what you eat can help you feel better and keep you out of the hospital.'
B. You're right; your heart is damaged, so diet won't make a difference now.'
C. You should eat whatever you want as long as you take your medications.'
D. Your diet caused your heart failure, so you need to change it now.'
Correct answer:
For a heart failure client doubting diet's role, the nurse promotes health by explaining its benefits watching food intake, like limiting sodium, reduces fluid buildup, easing heart strain and cutting hospital trips. This tertiary prevention approach manages the condition, improving quality of life despite damage, aligning with nursing's focus on empowerment through education. Agreeing diet doesn't matter dismisses evidence low-sodium diets improve outcomes. Suggesting food freedom with meds ignores synergy between diet and drugs. Blaming past diet shames without motivating. The positive response ties behavior to tangible gains less dyspnea, more energy encouraging adherence. Studies show dietary control slashes readmissions, making this nursing reply a practical, hopeful nudge toward self-care, vital for chronic illness management.
A female client arrives at the emergency department with chest and stomach pain and a report of black tarry stool for several months. Which of the following order should the nurse Oliver anticipate?
A. Cardiac monitor, oxygen, creatine kinase and lactate dehydrogenase levels
B. Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, fibrinogen and fibrin split product values.
C. Electrocardiogram, complete blood count, testing for occult blood, comprehensive serum metabolic panel.
D. Electroencephalogram, alkaline phosphatase and aspartate aminotransferase levels, basic serum metabolic panel
Correct answer:
The correct order to anticipate for the female client with chest and stomach pain and black tarry stool is option C. Firstly, an electrocardiogram is necessary to assess for any cardiac issues related to the chest pain. Next, a complete blood count is essential to evaluate for any potential blood disorders causing the black tarry stool. Testing for occult blood helps identify any gastrointestinal bleeding. Lastly, a comprehensive serum metabolic panel provides a broad assessment of the client's overall health status.
Option A is incorrect as creatine kinase and lactate dehydrogenase levels are not typically indicated for the presenting symptoms. Option B focuses on coagulation parameters, which are not the primary concern in this case. Option D includes tests unrelated to the client's symptoms, making it an inappropriate choice.
After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid, rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide, and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next?
A. Teach about drug-resistant TB.
B. Schedule directly observed therapy.
C. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed.
D. Discuss the need for an injectable antibiotic with the health care provider.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed. This is the next appropriate action because the patient is still testing positive for AFB despite being on the appropriate TB treatment regimen for 2 months. By assessing medication adherence, the nurse can determine if the lack of improvement is due to non-compliance. If the patient has been taking the medications as prescribed, then further evaluation for drug-resistant TB or other factors may be necessary.
Choice A is incorrect because assuming drug resistance without confirming adherence could lead to unnecessary treatment changes. Choice B is not the immediate priority as ensuring medication adherence should come first. Choice D is premature without first confirming adherence and evaluating other possible reasons for treatment failure.
Step-by-step rationale for why option D is correct:
1. During pregnancy, the hormone relaxin causes the symphysis pubis to widen to accommodate childbirth.
2. This widening of the symphysis pubis is a normal physiological change in pregnancy to facilitate the passage of the baby.
3. It is essential for the baby to pass through the birth canal during labor.
4. Therefore, a widened symphysis pubis is a normal finding in pregnancy.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A. "Increased residual lung volume" is not normal in pregnancy as lung volume decreases due to the elevation of the diaphragm.
B. "Decreased plasma volume" is not normal in pregnancy as plasma volume increases to support the growing fetus.
C. "Decreased total RBC mass" is not normal in pregnancy as RBC mass increases to meet the increased oxygen demands.
A resident has just been informed that his wife has died. The nursing assistant notes that he is staring and his skin is pale. She suspects the resident is experiencing shock. What should she do next?
A. The NA should place the resident on his side.
B. The NA should offer food or a sip of water.
C. The NA should elevate the resident's legs.
D. The NA should ask the resident's friend to help cheer him up.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: The NA should elevate the resident's legs. Elevating the legs can help improve blood flow to vital organs and prevent the resident from going into shock. When a person experiences emotional shock, blood flow can be redirected away from the brain and extremities, leading to symptoms like paleness and staring. Elevating the legs can help counteract this physiological response and stabilize the resident's condition.
Summary:
A: Placing the resident on his side is not the appropriate action for someone suspected of experiencing shock.
B: Offering food or water is not relevant in this situation and may not address the underlying issue of shock.
D: Asking the resident's friend to cheer him up is not a medical intervention for shock and may not address the physical symptoms observed by the nursing assistant.
The joint where our neck joins the head is an example of which type of joint?
A. Ball and socket joint
B. Pivotal joint
C. Hinge joint
D. Fixed joints
Correct answer:
The joint connecting the neck to the head, specifically the atlas (C1) and skull's occipital condyles, allows rotational and nodding movements. This atlanto-occipital joint permits flexion, extension, and slight lateral tilting, while the atlas-axis (C1-C2) adds pivoting, as in turning the head side to side. This fits the pivotal joint category, where a bone rotates within a ring-like structure, exemplified by the atlas pivoting around the axis' dens. Ball-and-socket joints, like the shoulder, offer multi-axial rotation and swinging, exceeding neck motion. Hinge joints, such as the elbow, limit movement to one plane, unlike the neck's range. Fixed joints, like skull sutures, allow no motion. The pivotal joint's rotational capacity matches the neck-head junction's function, distinguishing it in skeletal articulation classifications.
The nurse palpates the posterior chest while the patient says "99"Â and notes absent fremitus. Which action should the nurse take next?
A. Palpate the anterior chest and observe for barrel chest.
B. Encourage the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe.
C. Review the chest x-ray report for evidence of pneumonia.
D. Auscultate anterior and posterior breath sounds bilaterally.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Auscultate anterior and posterior breath sounds bilaterally. This is the next appropriate action after noting absent fremitus during palpation of the posterior chest. Auscultation helps assess breath sounds and detects abnormalities such as wheezing or crackles. It provides valuable information about the patient's lung health and can help identify potential respiratory issues. Palpating the anterior chest or observing for barrel chest (choice A) is not the immediate priority when fremitus is absent. Encouraging the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe (choice B) may be beneficial but does not directly address the absence of fremitus. Reviewing the chest x-ray report for evidence of pneumonia (choice C) is important but does not address the immediate need to further assess breath sounds in this scenario.
The nurse is caring for a patient who will undergo a removal of a lung lobe. Which level of care will the patient require immediately post procedure?
A. Acute care"â€medical-surgical unit
B. Acute care"â€intensive care unit
C. Ambulatory surgery
D. Ambulatory surgery"â€extended stay
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Acute care"â€intensive care unit. Immediately post-procedure, the patient undergoing a lung lobe removal will require intensive monitoring and care due to the potential for complications such as respiratory distress, bleeding, or infection. The intensive care unit provides the necessary level of care with specialized equipment and staff to manage these risks effectively.
Choice A: Acute care"â€medical-surgical unit may not provide the level of monitoring and intervention needed for a patient post lung lobe removal. Choice C: Ambulatory surgery is not suitable as this procedure requires more intensive monitoring and care. Choice D: Ambulatory surgery"â€extended stay is not appropriate as an extended stay in an ambulatory setting may not have the resources to manage potential complications effectively.
A patient undergoing infertility treatment asks about the importance of stress management. What should the nurse explain?
A. Stress has no impact on fertility treatment outcomes.
B. Stress can negatively affect hormone levels and ovulation.
C. Managing stress is only important after conception occurs.
D. Stress is a common cause of infertility in both partners.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because stress can indeed negatively affect hormone levels and ovulation, thereby impacting fertility treatment outcomes. High levels of stress can disrupt the delicate balance of hormones involved in the reproductive process, leading to irregular ovulation and potentially hindering conception. It is essential for patients undergoing infertility treatment to manage stress effectively to optimize their chances of success.
Choice A is incorrect because research suggests that stress can impact fertility treatment outcomes. Choice C is incorrect as stress management is important throughout the fertility treatment process, not just after conception. Choice D is incorrect because while stress can contribute to infertility, it is not always the primary cause and can affect fertility differently in each partner.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 86 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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