You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
About the vascularization of the uterus we can state the following:
A. the arteries branch off the common iliac artery;
B. the arteries are branches off the abdominal aorta;
C. the veins open in the inferior vena cava;
D. the arteries are branches off the internal iliac artery;
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — the arteries are branches off the abdominal aorta;
The correct answer is B because the arteries supplying the uterus arise from the abdominal aorta. The uterine arteries branch off the anterior division of the internal iliac artery, which itself arises from the posterior division of the internal iliac artery. This vascular supply ensures that the uterus receives oxygenated blood rich in nutrients necessary for its proper function.
Choice A is incorrect because the common iliac artery does not directly supply blood to the uterus. Choice C is incorrect because the veins draining the uterus ultimately empty into the internal iliac veins, which then drain into the common iliac veins and not directly into the inferior vena cava. Choice D is incorrect because while the uterine arteries are indeed branches off the internal iliac artery, the internal iliac artery itself arises from the common iliac artery and not directly from the abdominal aorta.
Question 2
The nurse is teaching a pregnant woman about breast milk. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A. "Your breast milk is immediately present after the delivery of your baby."
B. "Breast milk is rich in protein and sugars (lactose) but has very little fat."
C. "The colostrum, which is present right after birth, does not contain the same nutrients as breast milk."
D. "You may notice a thick, yellow fluid expressed from your breasts as early as the fourth month of pregnancy."
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — "You may notice a thick, yellow fluid expressed from your breasts as early as the fourth month of pregnancy."
The correct answer is D because the statement accurately describes colostrum, the first milk produced during pregnancy. Colostrum is a thick, yellow fluid that can be expressed from the breasts as early as the fourth month of pregnancy. It is rich in antibodies and nutrients essential for the newborn.
A: Incorrect. Breast milk does not immediately appear after delivery; it takes a few days for mature milk to come in.
B: Incorrect. Breast milk is rich in fat, not just protein and sugars. Fat is crucial for a baby's growth and development.
C: Incorrect. Colostrum is a nutrient-rich fluid that provides essential nutrients to the newborn, even though it may not have the same composition as mature breast milk.
In summary, choice D is correct because it accurately describes the early milk production during pregnancy, while the other choices provide inaccurate information about breast milk.
Question 3
The theorist who believes that adaptation and manipulation of stressors are related to fostering change is:
A. Dorothea Orem
B. Sister Callista Roy
C. Imogene King
D. Virginia Henderson
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Sister Callista Roy
Sister Callista Roy's Adaptation Model posits that individuals are adaptive systems interacting with a changing environment, where managing stressors fosters health and change. Nurses, per Roy, facilitate adaptation by manipulating environmental stimuli, aligning with the question's focus on stressor manipulation. Dorothea Orem's Self-Care Deficit Theory emphasizes self-care abilities, not stressor adaptation as a change mechanism. Imogene King's Goal Attainment Theory focuses on nurse-patient interactions to achieve health goals, not specifically stressor manipulation. Virginia Henderson's model defines nursing through 14 basic needs, prioritizing care assistance over adaptation to stressors. Roy's theory uniquely ties adaptation and stressor management to fostering change, as patients adjust to physical, emotional, or social challenges, making her the theorist best matching this description.
Question 4
You are caring for a patient who was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. She is learning to manage her diabetes and will need support after discharge. Her knowledge deficit is considered a _____ priority problem & will require a collaborative effort with health care professionals.
A. First-level
B. Second-level
C. Third-level
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Second-level
The correct answer is B: Second-level. In the nursing process, addressing a knowledge deficit for a patient with a new diagnosis like type 1 diabetes falls under second-level priority. This is because it is essential for the patient's immediate well-being and safety, but it does not pose a direct threat to their life or physiological stability. Collaborative effort with healthcare professionals is crucial to ensure the patient receives comprehensive education and support.
Choice A: First-level priorities are for life-threatening issues requiring immediate attention, such as airway obstruction or cardiac arrest, which do not apply in this scenario.
Choice C: Third-level priorities are important for long-term health outcomes but not immediate concerns like knowledge deficit in a newly diagnosed patient.
Choice D: This option is likely incomplete and cannot be considered a valid choice.
Question 5
A patient with emphysema is experiencing shortness of breath. To relieve this patients symptoms, the nurse should assist her into what position?
A. Sitting upright, leaning forward slightly
B. Low Fowlers, with the neck slightly hyperextended
C. Prone
D. Trendelenburg
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Sitting upright, leaning forward slightly
For an emphysema patient with shortness of breath, sitting upright and leaning forward slightly optimizes respiratory mechanics. This position, often instinctive in COPD, elevates the diaphragm, reducing its flattening from hyperinflation, and engages accessory muscles (e.g., pectoralis) to aid expiration, easing dyspnea. Leaning forward may also reduce abdominal pressure on the thorax, enhancing lung expansion. Low Fowler's with neck hyperextension strains breathing by misaligning the airway and limiting diaphragm movement. Prone positioning, face-down, restricts chest expansion, worsening air trapping. Trendelenburg, head-down, elevates abdominal contents against the diaphragm, intensifying dyspnea. The nurse's assistance into this upright, forward-leaning posture often with arms supported maximizes ventilation, aligning with COPD management to relieve acute respiratory distress effectively.
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Question 6
The nurse working in labor and delivery is reviewing messages to be returned to clients. Which statement made by the client alerts the nurse to call that client first?
A. I'm 32 weeks pregnant and taking calcium carbonate for my heartburn. Is there anything else I can take?
B. I'm 38 weeks pregnant and taking ibuprofen for my backache. Should I take aspirin too?
C. I'm 8 weeks pregnant and taking folic acid. Will it hurt me or the baby if I stop?
D. I checked my blood glucose with a friend's machine and it was 120 mg. I'm not diabetic. Is that normal?
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because taking ibuprofen during pregnancy, especially in the third trimester like at 38 weeks, can pose risks to the baby. Ibuprofen is not recommended in late pregnancy as it can lead to complications such as premature closure of a crucial blood vessel in the baby's heart. Therefore, the nurse should call this client first to educate them on the risks and advise against taking aspirin along with ibuprofen.
A: Taking calcium carbonate for heartburn during pregnancy is generally safe, so there is no urgent need to call this client first.
C: Stopping folic acid at 8 weeks may not be ideal, but it is less urgent than the potential risks associated with ibuprofen in late pregnancy.
D: Blood glucose of 120 mg may be normal, and the client's non-diabetic status indicates less urgency compared to the potential harm from mixing ibuprofen and aspirin during late pregnancy.
The foundation of research is based on which of the following:
A. Experience
B. Problem solving
C. Critical thinking
D. Scientific method
Correct answer:
The scientific method defining a question, hypothesizing, experimenting, analyzing, and concluding forms research's foundation, providing a structured, replicable approach to generate reliable knowledge. In nursing, it underpins evidence-based practice, like testing a new wound care protocol. Experience informs research but lacks systematic rigor alone; it's subjective and anecdotal. Problem-solving is a skill applied within research, not its base lacking the method's objectivity. Critical thinking is essential for interpreting data or designing studies, but it's a tool, not the framework. The scientific method's disciplined process ensures findings are valid and generalizable, distinguishing research from intuition or trial-and-error. It's the gold standard for building nursing knowledge, validating interventions, and improving patient outcomes, making it the foundational element of research.
A nurse leader mediates a dispute between a nurse and a family member. What is the primary goal?
A. Defend the nurse's actions
B. Satisfy the family's demands
C. Ensure patient care remains the focus
D. Avoid legal repercussions
Correct answer:
The primary goal of a nurse leader mediating a dispute between a nurse and a family member is to ensure patient care remains the focus (Choice C). This is because the ultimate priority in any healthcare setting should always be the well-being and safety of the patient. By keeping patient care as the central focus, the nurse leader can work towards resolving the conflict in a way that maintains the quality of care provided.
Choice A (Defend the nurse's actions) is incorrect because the focus should not be on protecting the nurse but rather on what is best for the patient. Choice B (Satisfy the family's demands) is also incorrect as the goal is not about giving in to demands but about finding a solution that benefits the patient. Choice D (Avoid legal repercussions) is not the primary goal in this scenario; while important, it takes a backseat to ensuring patient care remains the top priority.
A patient in the emergency department shows a variety of psychiatric symptoms, including restlessness and anxiety. The patient says, "I feel sad because evil spirits have overtaken my mind." Which worldview is most applicable to this individual?
A. Eastern/balance
B. Southern/holistic
C. Western/scientific
D. Indigenous/harmony
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Indigenous/harmony. This worldview is most applicable because the patient's belief in evil spirits aligns with many indigenous cultures that attribute mental health issues to spiritual causes. In indigenous communities, maintaining harmony with nature and spiritual beings is essential for well-being. The patient's symptoms and explanation indicate a belief in the influence of spiritual forces on mental health.
A: Eastern/balance focuses on achieving harmony within oneself and with the environment, but the patient's explanation is more about external evil spirits.
B: Southern/holistic emphasizes interconnectedness of mind, body, and spirit, but the patient's belief in evil spirits is more specific to indigenous perspectives.
C: Western/scientific relies on empirical evidence and medical explanations, which are not in line with the patient's spiritual explanation.
Which of the following would be an early sign of a possible aortic dissection?
A. A narrowing pulse pressure and tachycardia
B. A sudden rise in systolic blood pressure and fall in diastolic blood pressure
C. Blood pressure difference of 20 mmHg or more in the upper extremities
D. A reddish-blue discoloration of the skin above the shoulders
Correct answer:
Rationale for Correct Answer (C): An early sign of a possible aortic dissection is a blood pressure difference of 20 mmHg or more in the upper extremities. This is due to the unequal blood pressure distribution resulting from the dissection affecting the aorta. The pressure gradient occurs because the false lumen of the aorta created by the dissection leads to different blood pressures in the upper extremities. Monitoring blood pressure in both arms helps detect this discrepancy.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: A narrowing pulse pressure and tachycardia - Not specific to aortic dissection.
B: A sudden rise in systolic blood pressure and fall in diastolic blood pressure - More commonly seen in aortic rupture than dissection.
D: A reddish-blue discoloration of the skin above the shoulders - Typically associated with different conditions and not a characteristic sign of aortic dissection.
Epinephrine is effective in helping reverse the adverse effects of anaphylaxis. It is the drug of choice because it causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction to improve respiratory effort and improve blood pressure. What other effect does epinephrine have on the patient's body during an anaphylactic reaction?
A. It reduces the release of chemical mediators from the mast cells
B. It is effective in reducing the inflammatory response of the reaction
C. Increases the heart rate to improve peripheral perfusion
D. It causes peripheral vasoconstriction to reduce the itching associated with the reaction
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: It reduces the release of chemical mediators from the mast cells. Epinephrine acts on adrenergic receptors to inhibit mast cell degranulation, reducing the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators that contribute to anaphylaxis. This helps to prevent further systemic allergic reactions and stabilize the patient.
Choice B is incorrect because while epinephrine does help reduce the overall inflammatory response by stabilizing mast cells, it is not the primary mechanism of action.
Choice C is incorrect as epinephrine primarily causes an increase in heart rate through its positive inotropic and chronotropic effects on the heart, rather than peripheral vasoconstriction.
Choice D is incorrect as while epinephrine does cause vasoconstriction, it is mainly focused on improving blood pressure and systemic vascular resistance rather than reducing itching.
The nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia. Which intervention is most effective in preventing hospital-acquired pneumonia?
A. Administering antibiotics as prescribed.
B. Encouraging ambulation several times daily.
C. Performing frequent oral care.
D. Providing a high-calorie, high-protein diet.
Correct answer:
Rationale for Correct Answer C: Performing frequent oral care is the most effective intervention in preventing hospital-acquired pneumonia. This is because oral care helps to reduce the risk of oral bacteria being aspirated into the lungs, which can lead to pneumonia. By keeping the mouth clean and free of harmful bacteria, the risk of pneumonia is significantly reduced.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Administering antibiotics as prescribed may be necessary for treating pneumonia, but it does not directly prevent hospital-acquired pneumonia.
B: Encouraging ambulation several times daily is important for preventing complications like deep vein thrombosis in hospitalized patients, but it does not directly prevent pneumonia.
D: Providing a high-calorie, high-protein diet is important for overall nutrition and immune function, but it does not directly prevent hospital-acquired pneumonia.
A client with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is described by other staff as being perfectionistic, inflexible, and a 'master at procrastination.' The nurse learns that the client is nearly immobilized during times that call for the client to make a decision. The nurse realizes that the most likely hypothesis is this behavior is related to:
A. A need to make others uncomfortable
B. Needing to be the center of attention
C. Wanting someone else to be responsible
D. Fear of making a mistake
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Fear of making a mistake. This is because individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder often have an intense fear of making errors or mistakes. This fear can lead to indecisiveness and procrastination when faced with decision-making tasks. The client's behavior of being nearly immobilized during times requiring decision-making is characteristic of this fear of making a mistake.
Incorrect choices:
A: A need to make others uncomfortable - This is not related to the fear of making a mistake commonly seen in individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.
B: Needing to be the center of attention - This is not a typical characteristic of individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.
C: Wanting someone else to be responsible - This is not directly related to the fear of making a mistake, which is a core feature of the disorder.
Nurse Oliver is working in a out patient clinic. He has been alerted that there is an outbreak of tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following clients entering the clinic today most likely to have TB?
A. A 16-year-old female high school student
B. A 33-year-old day-care worker
C. A 43-yesr-old homeless man with a history of alcoholism
D. A 54-year-old businessman
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C, the 43-year-old homeless man with a history of alcoholism. This choice is most likely to have TB due to the increased risk factors associated with homelessness, alcoholism, and compromised immune system. Homeless populations are at higher risk for TB due to crowded living conditions and poor access to healthcare. Alcoholism can weaken the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to TB infection. The other choices do not have the same level of risk factors for TB compared to the homeless man with alcoholism. A, the 16-year-old high school student, is less likely to have TB as younger age groups typically have lower rates of TB. B, the 33-year-old day-care worker, may have some exposure risk, but it is not as high as the homeless man with alcoholism. D, the 54-year-old businessman, does not have the same risk factors for TB as the homeless man with alcoholism.
Which is the most basic need according to Maslow's hierarchy of human needs?
A. Physical and psychological
B. Love and belonging
C. Physiological needs
D. The need for self-actualization
Correct answer:
Maslow's hierarchy ranks physiological needs air, water, food, shelter as the most basic, foundational level for survival. Without these, higher needs cannot be pursued; for instance, a patient struggling to breathe (physiological) won't prioritize self-esteem. Physical and psychological isn't a Maslow category; it blends levels imprecisely. Love and belonging (e.g., relationships) is third-tier, reliant on physiological and safety needs being met first. Self-actualization, the top tier, involves personal fulfillment, achievable only after all lower needs are satisfied. In nursing, prioritizing physiological needs like oxygen for a hypoxic patient ensures life-sustaining care precedes emotional or growth-oriented interventions. Maslow's model underscores this hierarchy's logic: physiological stability is the bedrock, making it the most basic need driving human behavior and nursing priorities.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 50 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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