You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
During the latter stages of pregnancy, many women experience an increase in body hair growth in a masculine pattern. What is the explanation for this?
A. The ovaries secrete some testosterone along with the large amounts of estrogen produced late in pregnancy
B. The fetal ovaries and testes secrete androgenic steroids
C. The maternal and fetal adrenal glands secrete large amounts of androgenic steroids that are used by the placenta to form estrogen
D. The placenta secretes large amounts of estrogen, some of which is metabolized to testosterone
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — The maternal and fetal adrenal glands secrete large amounts of androgenic steroids that are used by the placenta to form estrogen
Step 1: Maternal and fetal adrenal glands secrete androgenic steroids.
Step 2: Placenta uses these androgenic steroids to form estrogen.
Step 3: Increased estrogen levels can lead to body hair growth.
Therefore, the correct answer (C) is supported by the process of androgenic steroids being secreted by the adrenal glands, utilized by the placenta to form estrogen, resulting in increased body hair growth.
Summary:
A (The ovaries secrete some testosterone along with estrogen) is incorrect as testosterone is not primarily secreted by the ovaries late in pregnancy.
B (The fetal ovaries and testes secrete androgenic steroids) is incorrect as the primary source of androgenic steroids in this context is the adrenal glands, not fetal ovaries or testes.
D (The placenta secretes estrogen, some of which is metabolized to testosterone) is incorrect as the main source of estrogen in this scenario is from the and
Question 2
The overall suicide rate among First nations and Inuit peoples is twice that of the non-indigenous population in Canada
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — TRUE
1. First, it is important to acknowledge the well-documented disparities in mental health and social determinants of health for Indigenous populations in Canada.
2. Studies have consistently shown higher rates of suicide among First Nations and Inuit peoples compared to the non-indigenous population.
3. Factors such as historical trauma, social inequalities, cultural disconnection, and lack of access to appropriate mental health services contribute to this disparity.
4. Therefore, the statement that the overall suicide rate among First Nations and Inuit peoples is twice that of the non-indigenous population in Canada is supported by empirical evidence.
5. In summary, the correct answer is A (TRUE) because it aligns with the data and research on suicide rates among Indigenous populations in Canada, while the other choices are incorrect as they do not reflect the well-established disparities in this context.
Question 3
The nurse is assisting the parent of a 6-month-old infant to administer an oral liquid medication. The parent asks why the medication can't be given in a bottle of formula to make it taste better. How will the nurse respond?
A. Adding a medication to the formula will cause the formula to curdle.
B. Formula and medications can form toxic compounds if mixed together.
C. The infant may not always take the entire bottle of formula.
D. This may cause the infant to refuse formula in the future.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — The infant may not always take the entire bottle of formula.
When administering oral liquid medications to infants, it's critical to ensure the full dose is received. Mixing medication with a large volume of formula poses a risk because if the infant doesn't finish the bottle, the nurse cannot accurately determine how much medication was consumed. This could lead to underdosing, which might reduce the medication's effectiveness, or overdosing if additional doses are given to compensate. Options A and B are incorrect because curdling or toxicity from mixing with formula isn't a universal concern unless specified by the medication's packaging, which isn't indicated here. Option D, while a potential behavioral concern, isn't the primary reason for avoiding this practice. The nurse's priority is ensuring accurate dosing, making C the best response as it addresses the practical challenge of incomplete consumption and aligns with standard medication administration principles.
Question 4
During ovulation induction, a patient asks why hormone levels are monitored so frequently. What is the nurse's best response?
A. To predict embryo quality before fertilization.
B. To ensure hormone levels stay within safe and effective ranges for egg maturation.
C. To confirm the patient is pregnant before the cycle ends.
D. To determine if the uterine lining is ready for implantation.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — To ensure hormone levels stay within safe and effective ranges for egg maturation.
The correct answer is B. Monitoring hormone levels during ovulation induction is essential to ensure that the hormones stay within safe and effective ranges for successful egg maturation. By closely monitoring hormone levels, healthcare providers can adjust medication dosages as needed to optimize the chances of successful ovulation. This helps to minimize the risk of overstimulation or understimulation of the ovaries, which can impact the quality of the eggs produced.
A: Predicting embryo quality before fertilization is not the primary purpose of monitoring hormone levels during ovulation induction.
C: Confirming pregnancy before the cycle ends is not the purpose of hormone level monitoring during ovulation induction.
D: Determining if the uterine lining is ready for implantation is important, but this is typically assessed through other methods such as ultrasound rather than hormone level monitoring.
Question 5
A client with cancer is admitted to a short-term rehabilitation facility. The nurse prepares to administer the client's oral chemotherapy medications. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Crush the medications if the client cannot swallow them.
B. Give one medication at a time with a full glass of water.
C. No special precautions are needed for these medications.
D. Wear personal protective equipment when handling the medications.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Wear personal protective equipment when handling the medications.
Oral chemotherapy drugs, like their IV counterparts, are hazardous due to their cytotoxic properties, posing risks to healthcare workers through skin contact or inhalation during handling. The most appropriate action is for the nurse to wear personal protective equipment (PPE), such as gloves, to minimize exposure, aligning with oncology safety standards. Crushing these medications is contraindicated, as it increases the risk of aerosolizing toxic particles, endangering both nurse and client many are labeled do not crush.' Giving one at a time with water isn't necessary unless specified and doesn't address safety. Assuming no precautions are needed ignores the drugs' hazardous nature, risking occupational exposure. Using PPE ensures safe administration, protects the nurse's health, and maintains the medication's integrity, reflecting best practices in cancer care where handling precautions are non-negotiable.
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Question 6
A patient with hearing loss by whisper test is further examined with a tuning fork, using the Weber and Rinne maneuvers. The abnormal results are as follows: bone conduction is greater than air on the left, and the patient hears the sound of the tuning fork better on the left. Which of the following is most likely?
A. Otosclerosis of the left ear
B. Exposure to chronic loud noise of the right ear
C. Otitis media of the right ear
D. Perforation of the right eardrum
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Otosclerosis of the left ear. In otosclerosis, there is abnormal bone growth in the middle ear that affects sound conduction. In this case, bone conduction being greater than air on the left indicates a conductive hearing loss, which is consistent with otosclerosis. The Weber test showing the sound better on the left ear suggests a lateralization towards the affected ear, supporting the diagnosis.
Incorrect choices:
B: Exposure to chronic loud noise of the right ear would likely result in sensorineural hearing loss, not a conductive hearing loss as seen in this case.
C: Otitis media of the right ear would also lead to conductive hearing loss, but the abnormal findings are consistent with left ear involvement, making this choice incorrect.
D: Perforation of the right eardrum would result in a conductive hearing loss in the right ear, not the left ear as observed in this patient.
The new graduate RN needs to have a preceptor assigned to him as he begins working in the pediatric clinic. The BEST person for this assignment would be
A. The charge RN who is a natural leader and knows all of the policies.
B. The staff RN who has 3 years of experience and enjoys orienting new employees.
C. The LPN with 15 years of experience who knows all of the doctors9 preferences.
D. The staff RN with 10 years of experience who refuses to work with students.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: The staff RN who has 3 years of experience and enjoys orienting new employees. This choice is the best because the staff RN has a moderate level of experience which makes them knowledgeable but not overly set in their ways. Additionally, their willingness to orient new employees shows they have a positive attitude towards teaching and mentoring. This combination of experience and willingness to teach makes them an ideal preceptor for a new graduate RN.
A: The charge RN may be a natural leader and know the policies, but may not have the time or interest in orienting a new graduate.
C: The LPN with 15 years of experience may know the doctor's preferences, but their scope of practice may not align with the RN's learning needs.
D: The staff RN with 10 years of experience who refuses to work with students is not suitable as a preceptor due to their negative attitude towards teaching.
The natural cycle relating to body functions that occurs due to daily, monthly or yearly changes is called
A. Biofuel
B. Biology
C. Biodiversity
D. Biorhythm
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Biorhythm. Biorhythm refers to the natural cycle of body functions that occur due to daily, monthly, or yearly changes. This term is specific to the biological rhythms that regulate various physiological processes in living organisms.
A: Biofuel - Biofuel is not related to the natural cycle of body functions. It refers to renewable energy sources derived from living organisms.
B: Biology - While biology is the study of living organisms and their interactions, it does not specifically refer to the natural cycles of body functions.
C: Biodiversity - Biodiversity refers to the variety of life forms in a particular ecosystem and is not directly related to the natural cycles of body functions.
In summary, biorhythm is the correct answer as it directly pertains to the natural cycles of body functions, while the other choices are unrelated terms in the context of this question.
A patient asks about the purpose of AMH (Anti-Müllerian Hormone) testing. What should the nurse explain?
A. AMH testing predicts the exact time of ovulation.
B. AMH levels indicate ovarian reserve and egg quantity.
C. AMH is used to confirm pregnancy success after IVF.
D. AMH determines sperm quality in male partners.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: AMH levels indicate ovarian reserve and egg quantity. This is because Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH) is primarily secreted by the ovaries and its levels in the blood reflect the number of remaining follicles in the ovaries, which correlates with ovarian reserve and egg quantity. This information is vital for assessing a woman's fertility potential, especially in the context of fertility treatments such as in vitro fertilization (IVF). Choice A is incorrect as AMH testing does not predict the exact time of ovulation, it assesses ovarian reserve. Choice C is incorrect as AMH testing is not used to confirm pregnancy success after IVF, but rather to determine the likelihood of successful response to ovarian stimulation. Choice D is incorrect as AMH does not determine sperm quality in male partners, as it is a hormone produced by the ovaries and is not related to male reproductive function.
Which test is the most specific test to diagnose an ACL tear?
A. Pivot shift
B. Lachman test
C. Anterior drawer sign
D. Ege's test
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Pivot shift. This test is the most specific for diagnosing an ACL tear because it assesses the rotational instability of the knee joint, which is a key characteristic of an ACL injury. During the test, the examiner applies a valgus force and internal rotation to the knee while extending it, causing the tibia to subluxate anteriorly. If there is an ACL tear, the tibia will suddenly reduce back into place, producing a characteristic "pivot shift" movement.
Summary of other choices:
B: Lachman test - While also used to assess ACL integrity, it primarily evaluates anterior translation of the tibia and is not as specific for rotational instability.
C: Anterior drawer sign - This test is primarily used to assess anterior translation of the tibia and is not specific to diagnosing an ACL tear.
D: Ege's test - This test is not commonly used in clinical practice for diagnosing ACL tears.
Which of the following statements concerning intraosseous infusion is TRUE?
A. Only crystalloid solutions may be safely infused through the needle
B. Aspiration of bone marrow confirms appropriate positioning of the needle
C. Intraosseous infusion is the preferred route for volume resuscitation in small children
D. Intraosseous infusion may be utilized indefinitely
Correct answer:
Rationale for Correct Answer (B):
1. Aspiration of bone marrow confirms appropriate positioning of the needle: This statement is true because when the needle is correctly placed within the bone marrow cavity, aspiration of bone marrow confirms proper positioning and ensures that the infusion will be successful.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Only crystalloid solutions may be safely infused through the needle - Incorrect, as both crystalloid and colloid solutions can be infused through the intraosseous route.
C: Intraosseous infusion is the preferred route for volume resuscitation in small children - Incorrect, as while it is commonly used in pediatric emergencies, it may not always be the preferred route depending on the situation.
D: Intraosseous infusion may be utilized indefinitely - Incorrect, as intraosseous infusion is typically considered a temporary measure and is not meant for long-term use.
Several minutes after sealing your adult trauma patient's sucking chest wound with an occlusive dressing secured on three sides, he begins to experience increasing shortness of breath, jugular vein distension, decreasing unilateral breath sounds on the affected side, and his blood pressure is less than 90 systolic and falling. Repeated attempts to relieve the pressure at the occlusive dressing have proven ineffective. At this point, which of the following should be initiated?
A. Remove the occlusive dressing and pull sucking chest wound open gently to allow air to escape the chest
B. Translaryngeal Jet Ventilation using a 10- or 14-gauge catheter that is an inch to an inch-and-a-half long
C. Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilations via forced air ventilator
D. Immediate needle decompression using a 10- or 14-gauge catheter that is at least 2 or 2.5 inches long
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Immediate needle decompression using a 10- or 14-gauge catheter that is at least 2 or 2.5 inches long.
Rationale:
1. Needle decompression is the standard treatment for tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition causing respiratory distress.
2. The patient's symptoms (shortness of breath, jugular vein distension, decreased breath sounds, falling blood pressure) are indicative of tension pneumothorax.
3. Repeated attempts to relieve pressure at the occlusive dressing have failed, suggesting a need for more definitive intervention.
4. A longer catheter (2-2.5 inches) is recommended to ensure proper decompression.
Summary:
A: Removing the occlusive dressing and pulling the wound open could worsen the tension pneumothorax by allowing more air into the chest.
B: Translaryngeal Jet Ventilation is not indicated for tension pneumothorax and may delay appropriate treatment
What is the simplest way to open the airway in an unconscious patient?
A. "Pull out the tongue"
B. Tilt head and lift chin
C. Lift neck from behind
D. Jaw thrust
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Tilt head and lift chin. This technique, known as the head-tilt chin-lift maneuver, is the simplest and most effective way to open the airway in an unconscious patient. By tilting the head back and lifting the chin, the tongue is moved away from the back of the throat, allowing for better airflow. This maneuver helps prevent airway obstruction and facilitates breathing.
Explanation of why other choices are incorrect:
A: "Pull out the tongue" - This is incorrect as it can potentially cause harm by pushing the tongue back further and obstructing the airway.
C: Lift neck from behind - This is incorrect as it can cause further injury to the neck and spine of an unconscious patient.
D: Jaw thrust - While jaw thrust is another technique used to open the airway, it is more complex and requires training to perform correctly, making it less simple than the head-tilt chin-lift maneuver.
The region of the pelvic floor inferior to the pubic symphysis, bounded by the pubic symphysis and the ischial tuberosities, and containing the external genitalia.
A. deep
B. fixators
C. urogenital triangle
D. superficial
Correct answer:
The pelvic floor is divided into two main regions: the anal triangle and the urogenital triangle. The description provided inferior to the pubic symphysis, bounded by the pubic symphysis and ischial tuberosities, and containing the external genitalia specifically refers to the urogenital triangle. This region is located anteriorly in the perineum and includes structures such as the urethra and external genitalia in both males and females. The term deep is a directional descriptor and does not define a specific region. Fixators refers to muscles that stabilize the origin of a prime mover, unrelated to pelvic floor anatomy. Superficial is another directional term and does not match the detailed anatomical boundaries provided. Thus, urogenital triangle is the correct answer, as it precisely corresponds to the anatomical area described in the question, distinguishing it from other regions like the anal triangle.
For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the doctor orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?
A. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.
B. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
C. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.
D. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because wet-to-dry dressings are used to debride the wound by removing necrotic tissue and promoting healing by secondary intention. Here's the rationale:
1. Wet-to-dry dressings involve moistening the gauze dressing with saline solution before placing it on the wound.
2. As the dressing dries, it adheres to the wound bed and necrotic tissue, helping to remove it during dressing changes.
3. This debridement process helps in promoting healing by allowing healthy tissue to grow and fill in the wound.
4. The wet-to-dry dressing method is specifically indicated for wounds with necrotic tissue, like foot ulcers in diabetic clients.
In summary, the other choices are incorrect because A focuses on maintaining a moist environment, B on protecting the wound, and D on preventing infection and minimizing discomfort, which are not the primary purposes of wet-to-dry dressings in this context.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 43 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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