LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 112
LPN exams · fundamentals
LPN exams fundamentals practice questionsset 112
You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A woman wears a size 7 shoe. She says, My feet are huge. I've asked three orthopedists to surgically reduce my feet. The patient tries to buy shoes to make her feet look smaller and, in social settings, conceals both feet under a table or chair. Which health problem is likely?
A. Dissociative amnesia with fugue
B. Illness anxiety disorder
C. Body dysmorphic disorder
D. Dissociative identity disorder
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Body dysmorphic disorder
The correct answer is C: Body dysmorphic disorder. This disorder involves a preoccupation with perceived flaws in physical appearance that are not observable to others. In this case, the woman's belief that her feet are huge despite wearing a size 7 shoe indicates a distorted body image. She seeks surgical interventions and hides her feet, which are characteristic behaviors of individuals with body dysmorphic disorder.
A: Dissociative amnesia with fugue involves memory loss and wandering behavior, which are not exhibited in this scenario.
B: Illness anxiety disorder involves excessive worry about having a serious illness, which is not the focus of the woman's concern.
D: Dissociative identity disorder involves the presence of two or more distinct identities or personality states, which is not evident in this case.
Question 2
Which of the following assessments is most appropriate for a patient with anorexia nervosa?
A. Monitor fluid intake exclusively.
B. Check weight daily without discussing it with the patient.
C. Observe the patient's response to meals, including food refusal or purging behavior.
D. Monitor for signs of vitamin and mineral deficiencies.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Observe the patient's response to meals, including food refusal or purging behavior.
The correct answer is C because observing the patient's response to meals, including food refusal or purging behavior, is crucial in assessing the patient's eating habits and behaviors associated with anorexia nervosa. This assessment helps in understanding the patient's relationship with food and identifying any disordered eating patterns. Monitoring fluid intake exclusively (Choice A) is not sufficient as it overlooks the broader aspects of the patient's eating behaviors. Checking weight daily without discussing it with the patient (Choice B) can be triggering and may not provide a comprehensive understanding of the patient's eating disorder. Monitoring for signs of vitamin and mineral deficiencies (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the specific behaviors associated with anorexia nervosa.
Question 3
Which is the primary factor in how a hospice nurse makes decisions while giving care in the client's home, surrounded by the client's family?
A. To allow the patient a comfortable, pain-free death
B. To assure the caregiver and the whole family that they are not hastening the client's death by anything they do to keep the client comfortable
C. To encourage the family to grieve and confront the reality of the client being terminal
D. To prevent a decline in the caregiver's health
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — To prevent a decline in the caregiver's health
Although the nurse tries to do everything possible for the client, the caregiver, and the whole family, the nurse must prevent a decline in the caregiver's health. Although the dying patient is the focus of all skilled nursing care, the experienced home care nurse knows that a careful assessment of the caregiver's mental and physical health is important. The spouse, lover, children, friends, and neighbors who have made the commitment to stay until the end need the nurse's time and attention as much as, if not more than, the patient. Although the patient's wishes are important, all decisions regarding care are made considering the health of the caregivers. Encouragement of the family to grieve and confront the reality of the client being terminal would not be a primary factor in how the nurse makes decisions.
Question 4
Which is a proper nursing action for a patient in acute respiratory failure?
A. Administer 100% oxygen to an intubated patient until the pathology has resolved.
B. Provide chest physical therapy for patients who produce more than 30 mL of sputum per day.
C. Use continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) if the patient has weak or absent respirations.
D. Administer packed red blood cells to maintain the hemoglobin level at 7 g/dL or higher.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Provide chest physical therapy for patients who produce more than 30 mL of sputum per day.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Chest physical therapy helps mobilize secretions in patients with excess sputum production, aiding in airway clearance.
2. In acute respiratory failure, sputum retention can worsen ventilation-perfusion mismatch and compromise gas exchange.
3. Providing chest physical therapy can improve ventilation, oxygenation, and respiratory function in these patients.
Summary:
A: Administering 100% oxygen to an intubated patient is important, but the resolution of the underlying pathology should guide oxygen therapy.
C: CPAP is not appropriate for weak or absent respirations, as it requires the patient to have an intact respiratory effort.
D: Administering packed red blood cells for maintaining hemoglobin levels is not directly related to addressing acute respiratory failure.
Question 5
A charge nurse hears a provider speaking to a staff nurse in anger concerning incorrect supplies that are available to perform a procedure. Which of the following statements by the charge nurse is appropriate?
A. You should think about how you make others feel when you lose your temper.
B. I will help you with this procedure instead of the staff nurse.
C. It must be very frustrating when you don't have what you need to perform the procedure.
D. If you let us know ahead of time that you plan to perform a procedure, we could do a better job of having the supplies available.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — It must be very frustrating when you don't have what you need to perform the procedure.
The correct answer is C because it demonstrates empathy and acknowledges the staff nurse's feelings of frustration. By expressing understanding and empathy towards the staff nurse's situation, the charge nurse validates their emotions and shows support. This can help in de-escalating the situation and fostering a positive working relationship.
Option A focuses more on the staff nurse's behavior rather than addressing the issue at hand. Option B offers a solution but does not address the emotional aspect of the situation. Option D places the blame on the staff nurse for not informing ahead of time, which can be counterproductive in resolving the immediate issue. Ultimately, option C is the most appropriate response in this scenario as it shows empathy and understanding towards the staff nurse's feelings.
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Question 6
Of the following interventions, which one would likely be most useful when attempting to prevent or lessen the symptoms associated with sundown syndrome?
A. Keeping the patient's room quiet and dimly lit at night
B. Interacting frequently with the patient during evening hours
C. Providing the patient with a large protein-based bedtime snack
D. Giving the patient a soft stuffed animal to provide a source of security
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because interacting frequently with the patient during evening hours can help provide comfort and reassurance, reducing anxiety and agitation associated with sundown syndrome. Interacting can stimulate the patient's senses and distract from negative symptoms.
Choice A is incorrect because a quiet and dimly lit room alone may not address the underlying emotional and psychological needs of the patient during sundown syndrome.
Choice C is incorrect because a large protein-based bedtime snack may not directly impact the behavioral symptoms of sundown syndrome.
Choice D is incorrect because while a soft stuffed animal can provide some comfort, it may not address the need for human interaction and engagement during the evening hours to prevent or lessen sundown syndrome symptoms.
A patient remanded by the court after his wife had him jailed for battery told the judge how sorry he was and suggested he needed psychiatric help. His history reveals acting-out behaviors as an adolescent and several adult arrests. The nurse interviews him about his relationship with his wife. Which statement by the patient is most consistent with a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder?
A. I've done some stupid things in my life, but I've learned a lesson.'
B. I'm feeling terrible about the way my behavior has hurt my family.'
C. I have a quick temper, but I can usually keep it under control.'
D. I hit her because she nags at me. She deserves it when I beat her up.'
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because it demonstrates a lack of remorse, empathy, and justification for violent behavior, which are key characteristics of antisocial personality disorder. The statement indicates a pattern of blaming others for his actions and a sense of entitlement to use violence as a means of control.
Choice A is incorrect because it shows acknowledgment of past mistakes and a willingness to learn from them, which is not typical of individuals with antisocial personality disorder. Choice B is incorrect as it reflects genuine regret and concern for the impact of his actions, which is inconsistent with the disorder. Choice C is incorrect because it implies an ability to control his temper, whereas individuals with antisocial personality disorder often struggle with impulsivity and aggression.
The Goldmark Report focused on what aspect of nursing?
A. Consistency in length of nursing education programs
B. Consistency in theory content across diploma programs
C. Desirability of establishing schools of nursing within academic settings
D. Increasing numbers of physicians teaching in nursing programs
Correct answer:
The Goldmark Report (1923) emphasized establishing nursing schools in academic settings, advocating for university affiliation to standardize and elevate education. Options A and B address consistency but weren't its focus, while D is inaccurate physicians weren't prioritized. This shift aimed to replace hospital-based training with rigorous academic programs, a recommendation still relevant as nursing seeks professional parity. It contrasts with earlier diploma models, pushing for theoretical depth alongside skills. Today, nurses benefit from this legacy in BSN programs, ensuring broader education for complex care environments. Recognizing this history underscores the importance of academic grounding, preparing nurses for leadership and research, not just bedside tasks, in an evolving healthcare landscape.
The nurse is directing an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to obtain maternal vital signs between contractions. Which statement is the appropriate rationale for assessing maternal vital signs between contractions raNtheRr thaIn aGt anBot.heCr inMterval? U S N T O
A. Vital signs taken during contractions are inaccurat
B. During a contraction, assessing fetal heart rate is the priority.
C. Maternal blood flow to the heart is reduced during contractions.
D. Maternal circulating blood volume increases temporarily during contractions.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Maternal circulating blood volume increases temporarily during contractions.
1. During contractions, the uterus contracts, temporarily reducing blood flow to the placenta and increasing blood volume in the maternal circulation.
2. This temporary increase in blood volume can affect vital signs, such as blood pressure and heart rate.
3. Assessing maternal vital signs between contractions provides a more accurate baseline reading.
4. Choice A is incorrect because vital signs taken during contractions may be affected by the temporary increase in blood volume.
5. Choice B is incorrect as assessing fetal heart rate is a separate priority and not directly related to maternal vital signs.
6. Choice C is incorrect as maternal blood flow to the heart is not reduced during contractions.
At high altitudes all of the following things occur in an effort to acclimatise EXCEPT
A. Hypoventilation
B. Polycythaemia
C. Increased numbers of capillaries per unit volume in peripheral tissues
D. O2 dissociation curve shifts to right
Correct answer:
Hypoventilation (choice A) doesn't occur at high altitudes; it's the exception. Low pOâ‚‚ triggers hyperventilation via peripheral chemoreceptors, increasing ventilation to raise PaOâ‚‚. Polycythemia (choice B) increases RBCs/Hb, boosting Oâ‚‚ capacity after days. Capillary density rises (choice C) in tissues, enhancing Oâ‚‚ delivery over weeks. The Oâ‚‚ dissociation curve shifts right (choice D) due to increased 2,3-DPG, aiding Oâ‚‚ unloading despite lower PaOâ‚‚. Pulmonary vasoconstriction (choice E) occurs acutely, shunting blood to better-ventilated areas. Hypoventilation would worsen hypoxemia, countering acclimatization's goal of optimizing Oâ‚‚ availability. Hyperventilation lowers PaCOâ‚‚, causing alkalosis (later compensated renally), making A the process that doesn't aid high-altitude adaptation.
What was the main reason for the brief existence of the nurse practitioner–model educational program?
A. Inadequate assessment and planning in the local area
B. Insufficient provincial/territorial funding
C. The large number of primary care physicians practising in urban areas
D. The need for nursing expertise and skills in other practice settings
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because the main reason for the brief existence of the nurse practitioner-model educational program was the need for nursing expertise and skills in other practice settings. This is supported by the fact that nurse practitioners were being trained to provide advanced nursing care in various settings beyond traditional primary care.
A, inadequate assessment and planning in the local area, is incorrect because the main reason was not due to local assessment and planning issues. B, insufficient provincial/territorial funding, is also incorrect as funding was not the primary factor leading to the brief existence of the program. C, the large number of primary care physicians practicing in urban areas, is irrelevant to the creation or cessation of the nurse practitioner-model program.
A nurse manager believes that a nurse is taking breaks that are too frequent and lengthy. Which assertive statement should the charge nurse use to initiate a discussion of the issue?
A. I understand you are allowed to take scheduled breaks during each shift, but you are taking more than the number allocated. Let's set a time when we can discuss this behavior'
B. You need to stop taking so many breaks'
C. Everyone else manages their breaks better'
D. I'm tired of covering for you'
Correct answer:
Assertive communication uses I' statements to express observations and feelings constructively, inviting dialogue. I understand you are allowed to take scheduled breaks during each shift, but you are taking more than the number allocated. Let's set a time when we can discuss this behavior' acknowledges policy, states the issue objectively, and proposes a discussion, fostering collaboration without blame. Stop taking so many breaks' is directive and confrontational, risking defensiveness. Comparing to others shames rather than solves, and I'm tired of covering' vents frustration, not addressing the root issue. The assertive approach opens a two-way conversation, respects the nurse's perspective, and aims for a solution, aligning with leadership skills to manage behavior effectively and maintain team morale.
Why is precipitous labor most often seen in multiparous women?
A. The cervix weakens after each delivery.
B. The cervix can dilate and efface simultaneously.
C. The multigravida uterus is better able to coordinate muscle movements.
D. It is more difficult for multiparous women to know when labor begins.
Correct answer:
Step 1: In multiparous women, the uterus has gone through labor before, making muscle coordination more efficient.
Step 2: Efficient muscle coordination helps in effective contractions, leading to faster labor progress.
Step 3: Multiparous women have experienced labor before, allowing the uterus to contract more effectively.
Step 4: This efficiency in muscle coordination is why precipitous labor is more often seen in multiparous women.
Summary:
A: The weakening of the cervix after each delivery is not a direct cause of precipitous labor.
B: The ability of the cervix to dilate and efface simultaneously does not explain why precipitous labor is more common in multiparous women.
D: The difficulty in knowing when labor begins is not a reason for the occurrence of precipitous labor in multiparous women.
A pregnant patient at 28 weeks gestation reports severe heartburn. What is the nurse's most appropriate recommendation?
A. Take over-the-counter antacids regularly to alleviate heartburn.
B. Eat smaller meals more frequently throughout the day.
C. Lie down immediately after eating to help with digestion.
D. Drink large amounts of water with meals to dilute stomach acid.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Eat smaller meals more frequently throughout the day. This recommendation helps prevent overeating, which can contribute to heartburn. Smaller meals reduce pressure on the stomach, decreasing the likelihood of acid reflux. Eating more frequently also helps maintain stable blood sugar levels, which can further alleviate heartburn symptoms.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Over-the-counter antacids may provide temporary relief, but taking them regularly can lead to potential risks during pregnancy.
C: Lying down immediately after eating can worsen heartburn symptoms as it allows stomach acid to flow back up into the esophagus.
D: Drinking large amounts of water with meals can dilute stomach acid, but it may also distend the stomach and increase pressure, leading to heartburn.
Which medication is used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus?
A. Methotrexate
B. Hydroxychloroquine
C. Leflunomide
D. Adalimumab
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Methotrexate. Methotrexate is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) commonly used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and systemic luplupus erythematosus. It works by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune system. Methotrexate is considered a first-line treatment for these conditions due to its efficacy and safety profile.
Explanation of other choices:
B: Hydroxychloroquine is primarily used to treat malaria and certain autoimmune conditions like lupus, but it is not typically the first choice for rheumatoid arthritis.
C: Leflunomide is another DMARD used for rheumatoid arthritis, but it is not commonly used for systemic lupus erythematosus.
D: Adalimumab is a biologic DMARD used for rheumatoid arthritis, but it is not typically used for systemic lupus erythematosus.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 112 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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