NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 19
NCLEX-RN · clinical judgment
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questionsset 19
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-RN exam guide or more NCLEX-RN practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which of these individuals would the nurse suspect as having the greatest risk of contracting Hepatitis B?
A. A sexually active 45-year-old man who has Type 1 Diabetes
B. A 75-year-old woman who lives in a crowded nursing home
C. A child who lives in a country with poor sanitation and hygiene standards
D. A sexually active 23-year-old man who works in a hospital
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — A sexually active 23-year-old man who works in a hospital
The correct answer is a sexually active 23-year-old man who works in a hospital. This individual is at the highest risk of contracting Hepatitis B due to exposure in a healthcare setting where potential bloodborne pathogens are present. Being sexually active also increases the risk of transmission through sexual contact. Choice A, a 45-year-old man with Type 1 Diabetes, is not directly associated with an increased risk of Hepatitis B. Choice B, a 75-year-old woman living in a crowded nursing home, is at risk for other infections due to the living environment but not specifically for Hepatitis B. Choice C, a child in a country with poor sanitation, is more at risk for water or foodborne illnesses rather than Hepatitis B transmission.
Question 2
In a patient with acromegaly, which assessment finding will the nurse expect to find?
A. Sternal deformity and hyperextensible joints
B. Growth retardation and a delayed onset of puberty
C. Overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet
D. Increased height and weight and delayed sexual development
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet
Acromegaly is a condition characterized by excessive secretion of growth hormone in adulthood after normal body growth completion. This hormonal excess leads to overgrowth of bones in the face, head, hands, and feet; however, there is no significant change in height. Stating sternal deformity and hyperextensible joints is incorrect as they are characteristic findings of Marfan syndrome. Growth retardation and delayed onset of puberty are not typical of acromegaly but are seen in hypopituitary dwarfism. Increased height, weight, and delayed sexual development are features of gigantism, not acromegaly. Therefore, the correct assessment finding in a patient with acromegaly would be overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet.
Question 3
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to reduce environmental stimuli that may cause discomfort for a client?
A. Loosen pressure dressings on wounds
B. Use assistance to lift a client in bed
C. Check temperature of water used in a sponge bath
D. Position the client in a prone position
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Check temperature of water used in a sponge bath
To reduce environmental stimuli that may cause discomfort for a client, nurses can implement various interventions. Checking the temperature of the water used in a sponge bath is crucial to prevent burns from water that is too hot or discomfort from water that is too cold. This intervention addresses a common source of discomfort for clients during personal care. Loosening pressure dressings on wounds, although important for wound care, does not directly address environmental stimuli. Using assistance to lift a client in bed is about proper positioning and preventing injury rather than reducing environmental stimuli. Positioning the client prone is not a suitable intervention for reducing discomfort caused by environmental stimuli.
Question 4
What kind of preventive measures is MOST likely to be used to prevent Mary Eden from falling due to her muscular frailty?
A. Physical therapy for muscle strengthening exercises
B. Physical therapy for range of motion exercises
C. Occupational therapy to help her with confusion
D. Medications to help her sleep more
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Physical therapy for muscle strengthening exercises
Mary Eden, due to her muscular frailty, is at risk of falling. The most effective preventive measure in this case would be physical therapy focusing on muscle strengthening exercises. Strengthening exercises can help improve her muscle tone and stability, reducing the risk of falls. While range of motion exercises may be beneficial, they may not directly address her muscular frailty and stability concerns as effectively as muscle strengthening exercises. Occupational therapy aims to help individuals with activities of daily living and functional tasks, not confusion. Medications to induce more sleep can actually increase the risk of falls due to potential side effects like dizziness or disorientation, rather than preventing falls.
Question 5
Who typically owns a patient's medical record?
A. The patient
B. The physician
C. The Legal Counsel of the Office
D. No one owns a medical record
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — The physician
The correct answer is 'The physician.' Physicians typically own their patients' medical records as they are the ones responsible for creating, updating, and maintaining these records. However, it is essential to note that patients have the legal right to access and obtain copies of their medical records. Choice A ('The patient') is incorrect as patients do not own their medical records, but they do have rights regarding access to them. Choice C ('The Legal Counsel of the Office') is incorrect as legal counsel typically do not own or have ownership rights over medical records. Choice D ('No one owns a medical record') is incorrect as medical records are owned by healthcare providers who create and maintain them, such as physicians.
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Question 6
A nurse is caring for a dying client whose family wants to be with him in the operating suite. The surgeon, however, does not allow families to be present during surgery. The nurse recognizes this as an ethical dilemma. What is the initial step of the nurse when managing this situation?
A. Contact the physician to amend the order for the client
B. Document an account of the situation to ensure adequate coverage of details
C. Consult with the medical ethics committee to determine a safe and workable solution
D. Speak with the chief nursing officer to change the policy governing this situation
Correct answer:
In this type of situation, the first action of the nurse should be to address the immediate needs of the client by requesting the physician to make a change based on the circumstances. The primary concern is to ensure the client's well-being and honor the family's wishes, even if it means deviating from standard protocols. While documentation (Choice B) and consulting with higher authorities like the medical ethics committee (Choice C) may be necessary at a later stage, the initial step is to take action to meet the client's needs promptly. Speaking with the chief nursing officer to change the policy (Choice D) is not the most immediate or practical step in this situation, as the focus should be on the client's current care needs.
In which situation might an occupational health nurse consultation be necessary?
A. A nurse is injured from using incorrect body mechanics to lift a client
B. A nurse receives a subpoena to testify in court about a client's case
C. A client who has been injured in a diving accident needs assistance with planning rehabilitation and surgery
D. A nursing unit is implementing a new electronic health record system
Correct answer:
An occupational health nurse is involved in assessing the work environment, educating employees about safety practices, and infection control. When a nurse sustains an injury due to incorrect body mechanics, it falls under the purview of an occupational health nurse because they are responsible for documenting such incidents, providing necessary care or treatment, and ensuring that preventive measures are in place to avoid similar accidents in the future. The other options do not directly relate to the role of an occupational health nurse. Testifying in court, assisting a client with rehabilitation, or implementing a new electronic health record system are not typical scenarios where an occupational health nurse would be involved.
The healthcare professional is taking the health history of a patient being treated for sickle cell disease. After being told the patient has severe generalized pain, the healthcare professional expects to note which assessment finding?
A. Severe and persistent diarrhea
B. Intense pain in the toe
C. Yellow-tinged sclera
D. Headache
Correct answer:
In patients with sickle cell disease, severe generalized pain can be associated with vaso-occlusive crises, but yellow-tinged sclera is a common clinical finding related to sickle cell disease. This yellowing of the sclera, known as jaundice, occurs due to the release of bilirubin from damaged or destroyed red blood cells. Severe and persistent diarrhea is not a typical assessment finding in sickle cell disease. Intense pain in the toe may be associated with vaso-occlusive crisis but is not the expected assessment finding in this scenario. Headache is a common symptom in many conditions but is not specifically related to the assessment finding expected in a patient with sickle cell disease presenting with severe generalized pain.
When providing mouth care to a patient in a coma, what should you do to provide good and safe mouth care?
A. keep the head of the bed up to prevent aspiration
B. brush the teeth and rinse the mouth with a cup of water
C. use a special foam swab to brush only the tongue
D. use a special foam swab to brush the tongue and teeth
Correct answer:
When providing mouth care to a patient in a coma, it is crucial to use a special foam swab to brush the tongue and teeth. This method helps maintain good oral hygiene for comatose patients. Special foam swabs are designed to effectively clean all areas of the mouth, including the cheeks and tongue, ensuring thorough care. Using water for mouth care in comatose patients can lead to aspiration, so it is important to avoid this practice. Keeping the head of the bed up alone does not prevent aspiration during mouth care for comatose patients, making choice A incorrect. Merely brushing the tongue (choice C) or using a foam swab only on the tongue (choice B) may not provide the comprehensive mouth care necessary for patients in a coma.
A healthcare professional realizes after a patient has left the office that they forgot to document the patient's complaint of a sore throat. Which of the following choices would BEST correct the error?
A. Pull out that page of the chart and rewrite it with the correct information.
B. Put one line through the original Chief Complaint, write 'ERROR,' your initials, and today's date. Make the correction by rewriting the Chief Complaint with the correct information.
C. Go to the next available line of the SOAP notes. Write the current date, then write 'Late Entry.' Place the date and time when the patient stated they had a sore throat. Sign and date the entry.
D. All of the above are incorrect.
Correct answer:
When adding information to a patient's chart after the encounter, using the term 'Late Entry' is essential. This clearly indicates that the information was added after the fact and helps to maintain the accuracy and integrity of the medical record. Option A is incorrect because removing a page from the chart and rewriting it can lead to inaccuracies and is not a recommended practice for correcting errors. Option B suggests marking the original Chief Complaint as an error, which may not be clear to future readers of the chart and could lead to confusion. Option D is incorrect as it dismisses the correct approach outlined in Option C, which is the best way to handle the situation of missed documentation during a patient encounter.
A patient is being seen in the crisis unit reporting that poison letters are coming in the mail. The patient has no history of psychiatric illness. Which group of the following medications would the patient most likely be started on?
A. Aripiprazole (Abilify)
B. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta)
C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Correct answer:
In this scenario, where a patient without a history of psychiatric illness is experiencing psychotic symptoms like believing in poison letters, the most suitable medication group to start the patient on would be atypical antipsychotics. Aripiprazole (Abilify) belongs to this group and is preferred due to its efficacy with fewer side effects compared to conventional antipsychotics. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) is also an atypical antipsychotic but is usually indicated after stabilizing the patient with oral medications. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a conventional antipsychotic, which is less favored due to its side effect profile. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant and is not the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms.
A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?
A. Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening
B. Perform tests for sexually transmitted diseases
C. Discuss her high risk for cervical cancer
D. Refer the client to a family planning clinic
Correct answer:
Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening. The client's behavior places her at high risk for HIV. Testing is the first step in identifying and managing the risk of HIV infection. Early detection allows for timely interventions and better outcomes. While performing tests for sexually transmitted diseases (choice B) is important, addressing the immediate and potentially life-threatening risk of HIV takes precedence. Discussing the risk for cervical cancer (choice C) is not the priority at this time as HIV screening is more urgent. Referring the client to a family planning clinic (choice D) is not the immediate priority given the client's current high-risk behavior and the need to address the immediate threat of HIV infection.
A patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which assessment would best indicate to the nurse that the patient's condition is improving?
A. Blood pressure (BP) is less than 140/90 mm Hg.
B. Patient reports decreased exertional dyspnea
C. Heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/minute
D. Patient's chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields
Correct answer:
The correct answer is for the patient to report decreased exertional dyspnea. In idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH), exertional dyspnea is a significant symptom indicating disease severity. Improvement in this symptom suggests that the medication, nifedipine, is effective in managing the condition. While nifedipine can affect blood pressure (choice A) and heart rate (choice C), these parameters are not specific indicators for monitoring IPAH improvement. Choice D, clear lung fields on the chest x-ray, does not directly correlate with the effectiveness of therapy for IPAH. Therefore, the most relevant assessment to monitor improvement in a patient with IPAH receiving nifedipine is a decrease in exertional dyspnea.
A patient with peripheral vascular disease is receiving discharge instructions. Which of the following information should be included?
A. Walk barefoot whenever possible.
B. Use a heating pad to keep feet warm.
C. Avoid crossing the legs.
D. Use antibacterial ointment to treat skin lesions prone to infection.
Correct answer:
Patients with peripheral vascular disease should be advised to avoid crossing their legs as this can impede blood flow. Peripheral vascular disease, also known as arteriosclerosis obliterans, is primarily caused by atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis results in the gradual progression of arterial occlusion due to the formation of atheromas. Crossed legs can further restrict blood flow, exacerbating the condition. Walking barefoot should be discouraged to prevent potential injuries to the feet. Using a heating pad can lead to burns and should be avoided to prevent thermal injuries. While using antibacterial ointment for skin lesions may be beneficial, it is not the priority instruction for patients with peripheral vascular disease.
A patient with peripheral vascular disease is receiving discharge instructions. Which of the following information should be included?
A. Walk barefoot whenever possible.
B. Use a heating pad to keep feet warm.
C. Avoid crossing the legs.
D. Use antibacterial ointment to treat skin lesions prone to infection.
Correct answer:
Patients with peripheral vascular disease should be advised to avoid crossing their legs as this can impede blood flow. Peripheral vascular disease, also known as arteriosclerosis obliterans, is primarily caused by atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis results in the gradual progression of arterial occlusion due to the formation of atheromas. Crossed legs can further restrict blood flow, exacerbating the condition. Walking barefoot should be discouraged to prevent potential injuries to the feet. Using a heating pad can lead to burns and should be avoided to prevent thermal injuries. While using antibacterial ointment for skin lesions may be beneficial, it is not the priority instruction for patients with peripheral vascular disease.
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 19 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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