NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 18
NCLEX-RN · clinical judgment
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questionsset 18
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-RN exam guide or more NCLEX-RN practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
An 18-year-old male patient informs the nurse that he isn't sure if he is homosexual because he is attracted to both genders. The nurse establishes a trusting relationship with the patient by saying:
A. Don't worry. It's just a phase you will grow out of.
B. Those are abnormal impulses. You should seek therapy.
C. At your age, it is normal to be curious about both genders.
D. Having questions about sexuality is normal. Have you noticed any changes in the way this makes you feel about yourself?
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — At your age, it is normal to be curious about both genders.
It is important for the nurse to validate the patient's concerns and provide a supportive environment. By acknowledging that it is normal for young adults to have questions about sexuality, the nurse helps the patient feel understood and accepted. This response encourages further discussion and exploration of the patient's feelings without judgment. Choice A dismisses the patient's concerns and implies that his feelings are not valid. Choice B stigmatizes the patient's feelings by labeling them as abnormal and suggests therapy without proper assessment. Choice D addresses the patient's feelings but lacks the validation and reassurance present in the correct answer, which is essential in building a trusting relationship with the patient.
Question 2
Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?
A. A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
B. A 75-year-old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic
C. A 40-year-old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
D. A 65-year-old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease, and smokes cigarettes
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.
Question 3
The nurse caring for Mrs. J is prepared to suction her endotracheal tube. Which of the following interventions will reduce hypoxia during this procedure?
A. Hyperoxygenate Mrs. J for up to 60 seconds prior to starting
B. Administer 15 mL of sterile fluid into the tube prior to suctioning
C. Suction for no longer than 30 seconds at a time
D. Wait 30 seconds after suctioning before attempting again
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Hyperoxygenate Mrs. J for up to 60 seconds prior to starting
Before suctioning a client's endotracheal tube, it is essential to hyperoxygenate the client for approximately 30 to 60 seconds. Hyperoxygenation helps increase oxygen delivery to the tissues, reducing the risk of hypoxia during and after the suctioning procedure. Administering fluid into the tube before suctioning (Choice B) is unnecessary and can lead to complications. Suctioning for no longer than 30 seconds at a time (Choice C) is a general guideline but does not specifically address reducing hypoxia. Waiting 30 seconds after suctioning before attempting again (Choice D) may lead to inadequate oxygenation and potential hypoxia, making it less effective in preventing this complication compared to hyperoxygenation prior to suctioning.
Question 4
The nurse is preparing to assess a patient’s abdomen by palpation. How should the nurse proceed?
A. Avoid palpating reportedly “tender†areas as this may cause pain.
B. Palpate tender areas quickly to minimize patient discomfort.
C. Initiate the assessment with deep palpation while encouraging the patient to relax and take deep breaths.
D. Begin the assessment with light palpation to detect surface characteristics and to acclimate the patient to touch.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Begin the assessment with light palpation to detect surface characteristics and to acclimate the patient to touch.
The correct approach is to begin the assessment with light palpation to detect surface characteristics and to acclimate the patient to touch. This allows the nurse to first assess surface features before proceeding to deeper palpation. Starting with light palpation also helps the patient become more comfortable with being touched, creating a smoother examination experience. Palpating tender areas quickly, as suggested in choice B, can increase patient discomfort. Deep palpation, as in choice C, is typically performed after light palpation to avoid discomfort and ensure proper assessment. Avoiding palpation of tender areas first, as in choice A, helps prevent causing unnecessary pain and should be done towards the end of the assessment.
Question 5
While assessing a one-month-old infant, which of the findings does not warrant further investigation by the nurse?
A. Abdominal respirations
B. Inspiratory grunt
C. Nasal flaring
D. Cyanosis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Abdominal respirations
Abdominal respirations in infants are considered normal due to the underdeveloped intercostal muscles. Infants rely more on their abdominal muscles to facilitate breathing since their intercostal muscles are not fully matured. Therefore, abdominal respirations do not typically require further investigation. Inspiratory grunt, nasal flaring, and cyanosis are findings that warrant additional assessment as they can indicate potential respiratory distress or other underlying health issues in infants. Inspiratory grunt may suggest respiratory distress, nasal flaring can be a sign of increased work of breathing, and cyanosis indicates poor oxygenation, all of which require prompt evaluation and intervention to ensure the infant's well-being.
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Question 6
Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate for a client suffering from a fever?
A. Avoid withholding food from the client
B. Increase the client's fluid intake
C. Provide oxygen
D. All answers are correct
Correct answer:
The appropriate nursing intervention for a client suffering from a fever is to increase the client's fluid intake. A fever can elevate the body's metabolism, leading to increased breathing and heart workload. This can result in fluid loss due to heightened respiration and sweating. Moreover, the augmented heart workload may necessitate more oxygen to maintain tissue perfusion. Providing oxygen and increasing fluid intake help meet the body's heightened demands during a fever. Withholding food from the client is inappropriate as proper nutrition is crucial for recovery, and providing oxygen alone may not address the fluid and metabolic demands associated with fever. Therefore, the correct choice is to increase the client's fluid intake.
The nurse analyzes the results of a patient's arterial blood gases (ABGs). Which finding would require immediate action?
A. The bicarbonate level (HCO3) is 31 mEq/L
B. The arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 92%
C. The partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2) is 31 mm Hg
D. The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mm Hg
Correct answer:
While all the values are abnormal, the low PaO2 level of 59 mm Hg indicates that the patient is at a critical point on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve. At this level, a small decrease in PaO2 can lead to a significant drop in oxygen saturation and compromise tissue oxygenation. Therefore, immediate intervention is necessary to improve the patient's oxygenation status. Choice A (HCO3 of 31 mEq/L) may indicate metabolic alkalosis or compensation for respiratory acidosis; however, it does not require immediate action in this scenario. Choice B (SaO2 of 92%) is slightly low but not critically low to require immediate action. Choice C (PaCO2 of 31 mm Hg) is within the normal range and does not indicate immediate danger to the patient.
A female patient is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of metformin?
A. Diarrhea and Vomiting
B. Dizziness and Drowsiness
C. Metallic taste
D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia.' When a patient is on NPO status (nothing by mouth) and prescribed metformin, there is an increased risk of hypoglycemia due to the absence of oral intake. Metformin, as an anti-glycemic drug, can lower blood sugar levels, and without food intake, the risk of hypoglycemia is higher. Diarrhea and vomiting are common gastrointestinal side effects of metformin but are not the main concern in this scenario. Dizziness and drowsiness are potential side effects of some medications but are not typically associated with metformin. Metallic taste is a known side effect of metformin but is not the primary concern in this situation where hypoglycemia is more critical to monitor due to the patient's NPO status.
In which of the following ways can a nurse promote sleep for a client experiencing insomnia?
A. Assist the client in using the bathroom one hour after going to bed
B. Give the client a massage before bedtime
C. Tuck bed sheets and blankets tightly around the client once settled in bed
D. Give the client a pair of socks to wear if their feet become cold
Correct answer:
A nurse can promote sleep for a client experiencing insomnia by addressing factors that may hinder sleep. Cold feet can disrupt sleep, so providing the client with socks to keep their feet warm can enhance comfort and aid in promoting sleep. The correct answer focuses on a direct intervention to address a specific issue that can impact sleep quality. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the issue of cold feet, which is a common problem that can interfere with sleep in individuals with insomnia. Assisting the client to use the bathroom, giving a massage in the morning, or tucking in bed sheets tightly do not target the discomfort caused by cold feet, making them less effective interventions for promoting sleep in this scenario.
The healthcare professional in the Emergency Room is treating a patient suspected to have a Peptic Ulcer. On assessing lab results, the healthcare professional finds that the patient's blood pressure is 95/60, pulse is 110 beats per minute, and the patient reports epigastric pain. What is the PRIORITY intervention?
A. Start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm
B. Ask the patient for a stool sample
C. Prepare to insert an NG Tube
D. Administer intramuscular morphine sulfate as ordered
Correct answer:
The priority intervention in this scenario is to start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm. The patient's low blood pressure (95/60) and elevated pulse rate (110 beats per minute) indicate a potential hemorrhage, requiring immediate fluid resuscitation. Starting a large-bore IV will allow for rapid administration of fluids to stabilize the patient's condition. Asking for a stool sample, preparing to insert an NG tube, or administering morphine sulfate should not take precedence over addressing the hemodynamic instability and potential hemorrhage observed in the patient. These actions may be considered later in the patient's care, but the primary focus should be on addressing the critical issue of fluid replacement and stabilization.
When assessing a patient being treated for Parkinson's Disease with classic symptoms, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
A. Tremors
B. Low Urine Output
C. Exaggerated arm movements
D. Risk for Falls
Correct answer:
When assessing a patient with Parkinson's Disease, the nurse should expect to note tremors as one of the cardinal signs of the condition. The classic symptoms of Parkinson's Disease include tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia (slow movements), and postural instability. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Low urine output is not a typical assessment finding associated with Parkinson's Disease. Exaggerated arm movements are not characteristic of the usual motor symptoms seen in Parkinson's Disease. While patients with Parkinson's Disease are at an increased risk for falls due to balance and coordination issues, 'Risk for Falls' is not an assessment finding but rather a potential nursing diagnosis based on the assessment findings.
The nurse is providing disease prevention education to a 63-year-old woman with a negative family history of breast cancer. The nurse recommends the patient schedule mammograms with which frequency?
A. Every 5 years
B. Every 10 years
C. Every other year
D. Once a year
Correct answer:
Mammograms, along with breast self-examinations and other routine tests, are key for the early diagnosis and treatment of breast cancer. All major societies (WHO, ACS, USPSTF) recommend a screening mammogram every two years in women of this age at average risk of breast cancer. The recommended frequency may change if there are identified family history and significant risk factors. Choosing 'Once a year' is too frequent and not aligned with current guidelines. Opting for 'Every 5 years' or 'Every 10 years' intervals is not adequate for regular breast cancer screening and may increase the risk of cancer progression. Therefore, 'Every other year' is the most appropriate choice for this patient without a family history of breast cancer.
A. A client overhears a nurse telling her assistant that he is 'too high maintenance.'
B. A client reads disparaging remarks that a nurse has written about him in his chart.
C. A nurse fails to notify a physician when a client's hemoglobin level is 8.1 gm/dL.
D. A nurse administers narcotic pain medication to a client in pain but does not have an order.
Correct answer:
Libel involves making defamatory statements against another person in written form. These statements can harm the person's reputation or feelings. In this scenario, the correct answer is when a client reads disparaging remarks that a nurse has written about him in his chart. This constitutes libel because the negative remarks are written down and can potentially damage the client's reputation. Choices A, C, and D do not involve libel. Choice A describes a verbal statement, not written, so it does not constitute libel. Choice C involves a failure to notify a physician, which is a different issue unrelated to libel. Choice D pertains to administering medication without an order, which is a matter of improper practice rather than libel.
Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis?
A. Weak, nonproductive cough effort
B. Large amounts of greenish sputum
C. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute
D. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'Weak, nonproductive cough effort.' A weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively, supporting the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. In pneumonia, secretions can obstruct the airway, leading to ineffective clearance. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect ineffective airway clearance. Large amounts of greenish sputum (Choice B) may suggest infection or inflammation but do not specifically indicate ineffective airway clearance. The respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute (Choice C) and a resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85% (Choice D) are more indicative of impaired gas exchange or respiratory distress rather than ineffective airway clearance.
Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?
A. PT/INR
B. CBC
C. PTT
D. WBC
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 18 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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