NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 20
NCLEX-RN · clinical judgment
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questionsset 20
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-RN exam guide or more NCLEX-RN practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A newborn has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. In discussing the condition and treatment with the family, the nurse should emphasize:
A. They can expect the child will be mentally retarded.
B. Administration of thyroid hormone will prevent problems.
C. This rare problem is always hereditary.
D. Physical growth/development will be delayed.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Administration of thyroid hormone will prevent problems.
The correct answer is administration of thyroid hormone will prevent problems. In newborns diagnosed with hypothyroidism, early identification and continuous treatment with hormone replacement can correct this condition effectively. Choice A is incorrect as it uses outdated and inappropriate language (mentally retarded) and does not reflect modern understanding of conditions. Choice C is incorrect because while some cases of hypothyroidism can be hereditary, it is not always the case. Choice D is incorrect as physical growth and development can be affected by hypothyroidism, but the critical emphasis should be on the importance of administering thyroid hormone to prevent complications and support normal growth and development.
Question 2
During an admission assessment on a 2-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome, the nurse notes that which characteristic is most commonly associated with this syndrome?
A. Hypertension
B. Generalized edema
C. Increased urinary output
D. Frank, bright red blood in the urine
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Generalized edema
Nephrotic syndrome in children is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, and edema. The most common manifestation is generalized edema due to protein loss in the urine, leading to decreased plasma oncotic pressure. This results in fluid shifting into the interstitial spaces, causing edema. Hypertension is not a typical feature of nephrotic syndrome in children. Increased urinary output is not a common finding; instead, children with nephrotic syndrome often have decreased urine output due to decreased renal perfusion. The presence of frank, bright red blood in the urine is not a typical characteristic of nephrotic syndrome but may indicate a different renal condition such as glomerulonephritis.
Question 3
A 23-year-old patient in the 27th week of pregnancy has been hospitalized on complete bed rest for 6 days. She experiences sudden shortness of breath, accompanied by chest pain. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
A. Myocardial infarction due to a history of atherosclerosis.
B. Pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
C. Anxiety attacks due to worries about her baby's health.
D. Congestive heart failure due to fluid overload.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
In a hospitalized patient on prolonged bed rest, the most likely cause of sudden onset shortness of breath and chest pain is pulmonary embolism. Pregnancy and prolonged inactivity both increase the risk of clot formation in the deep veins of the legs, known as deep vein thrombosis (DVT). These clots can dislodge and travel to the lungs, causing a pulmonary embolism. Myocardial infarction (Choice A) is less likely in a young patient without a significant history of atherosclerosis. Anxiety attacks (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but are less likely in this context. Congestive heart failure (Choice D) is less probable given the acute onset of symptoms and absence of typical signs like peripheral edema in this case.
Question 4
A 23-year-old patient in the 27th week of pregnancy has been hospitalized on complete bed rest for 6 days. She experiences sudden shortness of breath, accompanied by chest pain. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
A. Myocardial infarction due to a history of atherosclerosis.
B. Pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
C. Anxiety attacks due to worries about her baby's health.
D. Congestive heart failure due to fluid overload.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
In a hospitalized patient on prolonged bed rest, the most likely cause of sudden onset shortness of breath and chest pain is pulmonary embolism. Pregnancy and prolonged inactivity both increase the risk of clot formation in the deep veins of the legs, known as deep vein thrombosis (DVT). These clots can dislodge and travel to the lungs, causing a pulmonary embolism. Myocardial infarction (Choice A) is less likely in a young patient without a significant history of atherosclerosis. Anxiety attacks (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but are less likely in this context. Congestive heart failure (Choice D) is less probable given the acute onset of symptoms and absence of typical signs like peripheral edema in this case.
Question 5
The client reports nausea and constipation. Which of the following would be the priority nursing action?
A. Collect a stool sample
B. Complete an abdominal assessment
C. Administer an anti-nausea medication
D. Notify the physician
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Complete an abdominal assessment
The priority nursing action when a client reports symptoms like nausea and constipation is to complete an abdominal assessment. Assessment is crucial as it involves the systematic collection of data to understand the client's condition. By assessing the abdomen, the nurse can gather essential information to make a nursing diagnosis and develop a care plan. Collecting a stool sample (Choice A) may be necessary but comes after the assessment to confirm findings. Administering an anti-nausea medication (Choice C) addresses symptoms but does not address the underlying cause without a thorough assessment. Notifying the physician (Choice D) should come after the assessment to provide a complete picture of the client's condition.
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Question 6
One hour after a thoracotomy, a patient complains of incisional pain at a level 7 (based on a 0 to 10 scale) and has decreased left-sided breath sounds. The pleural drainage system has 100 mL of bloody drainage and a large air leak. Which action is best for the nurse to take next?
A. Milk the chest tube gently to remove any clots.
B. Clamp the chest tube momentarily to check for the origin of the air leak.
C. Assist the patient to deep breathe, cough, and use the incentive spirometer.
D. Set up the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) and administer the loading dose of morphine.
Correct answer:
In this scenario, the best action is to set up the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) and administer the loading dose of morphine. The patient's pain level is high, which can hinder deep breathing and coughing. Addressing pain control is a priority to facilitate optimal respiratory function. Milking the chest tube to remove clots is unnecessary as the drainage amount is not alarming in the early postoperative period. Clamping the chest tube to locate the air leak is not recommended as it can lead to tension pneumothorax. Assisting the patient to deep breathe, cough, and use the incentive spirometer is important but should follow adequate pain management to ensure the patient can effectively participate in these activities.
The patient who has two fractured ribs from an automobile accident is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the patient indicates effective teaching?
A. I am going to buy a rib binder to wear during the day.
B. I can take shallow breaths to prevent my chest from hurting.
C. I should plan on taking the pain pills only at bedtime so I can sleep.
D. I will use the incentive spirometer every hour or two during the day.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is, 'I will use the incentive spirometer every hour or two during the day.' After sustaining rib fractures, it is crucial to prevent complications like atelectasis and pneumonia by practicing deep breathing and coughing. Using the incentive spirometer helps in maintaining lung expansion and preventing respiratory issues. Buying a rib binder could restrict chest expansion and hinder deep breathing efforts, increasing the risk of atelectasis. Taking shallow breaths may not effectively expand the lungs, leading to potential respiratory complications. Relying solely on pain medication at bedtime may not adequately address the need for lung expansion and prevention of respiratory complications during the day.
A physician suspects a patient may have pancreatitis. Which of the following tests would be most appropriate to diagnose this condition?
A. CK and Troponin
B. BUN and Creatinine
C. Amylase and Lipase
D. HDL and LDL Cholesterol Levels
Correct answer:
To diagnose pancreatitis, testing amylase and lipase levels is crucial. Amylase and lipase are enzymes produced by the pancreas that help digest carbohydrates and lipids. In pancreatitis, these enzymes are released in high amounts into the bloodstream due to pancreatic inflammation or damage. Elevated levels of amylase and lipase in blood tests strongly indicate pancreatitis. Choice A, CK and Troponin, are cardiac markers used in diagnosing heart conditions like myocardial infarction, not pancreatitis. Choice B, BUN and Creatinine, are kidney function tests, not specific to pancreatitis. Choice D, HDL and LDL Cholesterol Levels, are lipid profile tests used to assess cardiovascular health, not for diagnosing pancreatitis.
At the beginning of the shift, a nurse receives report for her daily assignment. Which of the following situations should the nurse give first priority?
A. A diabetic client with a blood glucose level of 195 mg/dL
B. A family member of an elderly client who has questions
C. A client with COPD with an oxygen saturation of 84%
D. A client who requires assistance to use the bathroom
Correct answer:
When prioritizing the needs of clients, the nurse must begin with the unstable client or manage conditions that affect airway, breathing, or circulation first. The client with COPD has a condition that affects breathing and is exhibiting decreased oxygen saturation levels; therefore, this client should be the first priority. Option A, the diabetic client with a blood glucose level of 195 mg/dL, does not present an immediate threat to airway, breathing, or circulation. Option B, addressing questions from a family member, is important but can be addressed after addressing critical patient needs. Option D, assisting a client to use the bathroom, is a routine task that can be prioritized after addressing urgent medical needs.
Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent's remark: "We just don't know how he caught the disease!"? The nurse's response is based on an understanding that:
A. AGN is a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules.
B. The disease is easily transmissible in schools and camps.
C. The illness is usually associated with chronic respiratory infections.
D. It is not "caught"? but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is that acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection. AGN is generally accepted as an immune-complex disease triggered by an antecedent streptococcal infection occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is considered a noninfectious renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules but rather a noninfectious renal disease. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps but is a result of a previous streptococcal infection. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections, but with a previous streptococcal infection.
Which of these devices is considered a protective device, rather than a restraint?
A. A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching
B. A mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out
C. A side rail to prevent the patient from falling
D. A soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing
Correct answer:
A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching is considered a protective device because its primary purpose is to protect the patient from harming themselves by scratching. It does not restrict the patient's movement. Choice B, a mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out, is considered a restraint as it limits the patient's movement. Choice C, a side rail to prevent the patient from falling, is also a protective device as it aims to keep the patient safe by providing support and preventing falls. Choice D, a soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing, is a type of restraint as it restricts the patient's movement to prevent them from interfering with medical equipment.
Mr. L was working in his garage at home and had an accident with a power saw. He is brought into the emergency department by a neighbor with a traumatic hand amputation. What is the first action of the nurse?
A. Place a tourniquet at the level of the elbow
B. Apply direct pressure to the injury
C. Administer a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline
D. Elevate the injured extremity on a pillow
Correct answer:
The correct first action for the nurse in this scenario is to apply direct pressure to the injury. When a client presents with traumatic hand amputation causing excessive bleeding, the immediate goal is to control the bleeding. Applying direct pressure with a sterile dressing helps to stem the flow of blood and stabilize the patient. Placing a tourniquet at the level of the elbow should be avoided initially as it may lead to further complications such as tissue damage. Administering a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline is not the priority in this situation where hemorrhage control is crucial. Elevating the injured extremity on a pillow does not address the primary concern of controlling the bleeding and stabilizing the patient.
The nurse is reviewing the characteristics of culture. Which statement is correct regarding the development of one's culture?
A. Learned through language acquisition and socialization.
B. Genetically determined on the basis of racial background.
C. A nonspecific phenomenon and is adaptive but unnecessary.
D. Biologically determined on the basis of physical characteristics.
Correct answer:
Culture is a complex phenomenon that includes attitudes, beliefs, self-definitions, norms, roles, and values learned from birth through the processes of language acquisition and socialization. It is not biologically or genetically determined, but rather acquired through social interactions. The correct answer, 'Learned through language acquisition and socialization,' aligns with the understanding that culture is a learned behavior. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because culture is not genetically determined, nonspecific, or biologically based on physical characteristics. Understanding that culture is acquired through language and socialization is essential for healthcare providers to provide culturally competent care.
A patient is seen in the clinic for reports of "fainting episodes that started last week."? How would the nurse proceed with the examination?
A. Blood pressure readings are taken in both arms and thighs.
B. The patient is assisted to a lying position, and their blood pressure is taken.
C. The patient's blood pressure is recorded in lying, sitting, and standing positions.
D. The patient's blood pressure is recorded in lying and sitting positions; these numbers are then averaged to obtain a mean blood pressure.
Correct answer:
When a patient reports fainting episodes, it is crucial to assess for orthostatic hypotension. If the nurse suspects volume depletion, the patient has hypertension, is on antihypertensive medications, or has a history of fainting or syncope, blood pressure readings should be taken in three positions: lying, sitting, and standing. This assessment helps detect orthostatic hypotension, which can provide valuable information about the patient's condition. Taking blood pressure readings in multiple positions allows for a comprehensive evaluation of possible postural changes in blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not cover the necessary positions to assess for orthostatic hypotension effectively.
Who should be members of a patient care conference?
A. Doctors, nurses, and nursing assistants since they are healthcare providers
B. Doctors, nurses, and the patient and/or the family members
C. ALL members of the healthcare team
D. ALL members of the healthcare team and the patient/resident
Correct answer:
In a patient care conference, it is essential to have all members of the healthcare team present to ensure comprehensive and coordinated care. Including the patient or resident, along with their family members if desired, is crucial as they are the focus of care. Choice A is incorrect because it excludes other important members of the healthcare team. Choice B is partially correct as it includes the patient and/or family members but does not encompass the entire healthcare team. Choice C is too broad and does not specifically address the inclusion of the patient or resident. The correct answer, Choice D, includes all healthcare team members and the patient/resident, ensuring a holistic approach to patient-centered care.
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 20 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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