NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 2
NCLEX-RN · clinical judgment
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questionsset 2
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-RN exam guide or more NCLEX-RN practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the troponin T value is at 5.3 ng/mL. Which of these interventions, if not already completed, would take priority over the others?
A. Place the patient in a 90-degree position
B. Assess whether the patient is taking diuretics
C. Obtain and attach defibrillator leads
D. Assess the patient's last ejection fraction
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Obtain and attach defibrillator leads
In this scenario, the elevated Troponin T level indicates cardiac damage, possibly due to a myocardial infarction. A Troponin T value of 5.3 ng/mL is significantly elevated (normal levels are below 0.2 ng/mL), suggesting acute cardiac injury. Given the setting of an Emergency Room and the critical nature of the situation, the priority intervention should be to obtain and attach defibrillator leads. Elevated Troponin T levels can indicate a higher risk of arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. Defibrillator leads are essential for monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm and readiness for immediate defibrillation if necessary. Placing the patient in a 90-degree position (Choice A) or assessing diuretic use (Choice B) are not immediate priorities in this critical situation. Additionally, assessing the patient's last ejection fraction (Choice D) is important but not as urgent as preparing for potential life-threatening arrhythmias requiring defibrillation.
Question 2
A new mother has some questions about phenylketonuria (PKU). Which of the following
statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?
A. A Guthrie test can check the necessary lab values.
B. The urine has a high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid
C. Mental deficits are often present with PKU
D. The effects of PKU are reversible
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — The effects of PKU are reversible
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited disorder that increases the levels of phenylalanine (a
building block of proteins) in the blood. If PKU is not treated, phenylalanine can build up
to harmful levels in the body, causing intellectual disability and other serious health
problems. The signs and symptoms of PKU vary from mild to severe. The most severe form
of this disorder is known as classic PKU. Infants with classic PKU appear normal until they
are a few months old. Without treatment, these children develop a permanent intellectual
disability. Seizures, delayed development, behavioral problems, and psychiatric disorders
are also common. Untreated individuals may have a musty or mouse-like odor as a side
effect of excess phenylalanine in the body. Children with classic PKU tend to have lighter skin and hair than unaffected family members and are also likely to have skin disorders
such as eczema. The effects of PKU stay with the infant throughout their life (via Genetic
Home Reference).
Question 3
Victor, a 43-year-old patient who is HIV positive with a diagnosis of pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), has been admitted to the hospital. His prognosis is very poor, and his partner, Roger, would like to have a ceremony performed in his room to honor their union in case something happens to Victor, who agrees. What is the most appropriate response to their request?
A. Inform them that Victor is too ill for a ceremony
B. Ask the social worker to intervene
C. Tell them it's against hospital policy
D. Coordinate with other disciplines to support their request
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Coordinate with other disciplines to support their request
The most appropriate and compassionate response is to respect Victor and Roger's relationship and honor their wishes. Coordinating with other disciplines, such as social work, chaplaincy, or patient advocacy, to support their request demonstrates a holistic approach to care. This collaborative effort can facilitate the ceremony and provide emotional support to both Victor and Roger during a challenging time. Upholding their request aligns with the principles of patient-centered care and promotes dignity and respect, as outlined in the ANA Code of Ethics. Informing them that Victor is too ill for a ceremony (Choice A) would dismiss their emotional needs and fail to address their request. Involving the social worker without understanding the specific request (Choice B) may not directly address their desire for a ceremony. Telling them it's against hospital policy (Choice C) disregards the importance of honoring patient preferences and may cause unnecessary distress in an already sensitive situation.
Question 4
The healthcare provider is caring for a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour
B. Periodic crying and irritability
C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier
D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — No measurable voiding in 4 hours
The correct answer is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. The concern is the possibility of hyperkalemia, which could occur with continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output since potassium is excreted via the kidneys. It is crucial to monitor urinary output in pediatric patients receiving potassium-containing IV solutions to prevent electrolyte imbalances and potential complications.
Choices A, B, and C are not the most critical findings that require immediate reporting. '3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour' may suggest a need for antiemetic therapy or further assessment of the underlying cause but does not pose an immediate risk like the potential electrolyte imbalance from decreased urinary output. 'Periodic crying and irritability' and 'Vigorous sucking on a pacifier' are common behaviors in infants and are not indicative of a critical condition that requires urgent attention in this scenario.
Question 5
A patient's nursing diagnosis is Insomnia. The desired outcome is: "Patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by October 31."? On November 1, a review of the sleep data shows the patient sleeps an average of 4 hours nightly and takes a 2-hour afternoon nap. What is the nurse's next action?
A. Continue the current plan without changes.
B. Remove this nursing diagnosis from the plan of care.
C. Write a new nursing diagnosis that better reflects the problem.
D. Revise the target date for outcome attainment and examine interventions.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Revise the target date for outcome attainment and examine interventions.
The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to revise the target date for outcome attainment and reevaluate interventions. The initial desired outcome was for the patient to sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by October 31. Since the patient is currently sleeping an average of 4 hours nightly and taking a 2-hour afternoon nap, the goal has not been achieved. By extending the time frame for attaining the outcome, the patient may have more time to progress towards the desired sleep duration. Additionally, examining interventions is crucial to identify any changes or adjustments that may be necessary to help the patient achieve the desired outcome. Continuing the current plan without changes is not appropriate as the goal has not been met. Removing the nursing diagnosis from the plan of care should only be considered when the problem is resolved. Writing a new nursing diagnosis is not needed as the current diagnosis of Insomnia still accurately reflects the patient's condition.
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Question 6
The nurse administers prescribed therapies for a patient with cor pulmonale and right-sided heart failure. Which assessment would best evaluate the effectiveness of the therapies?
A. Observe for distended neck veins.
B. Auscultate for crackles in the lungs.
C. Palpate for heaves or thrills over the heart.
D. Review hemoglobin and hematocrit values.
Correct answer:
To evaluate the effectiveness of therapies for cor pulmonale and right-sided heart failure, observing for distended neck veins would be the most appropriate assessment. Cor pulmonale is characterized by right ventricular failure due to pulmonary hypertension, leading to clinical manifestations such as peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, and right upper-quadrant abdominal tenderness. These signs indicate increased central venous pressure and right heart strain, which can be assessed by observing for distended neck veins. Auscultating for crackles in the lungs is more indicative of left-sided heart failure rather than right-sided heart failure. Heaves or thrills over the heart are not typically associated with cor pulmonale. Reviewing hemoglobin and hematocrit values may show elevations due to chronic hypoxemia and polycythemia in cor pulmonale, but these values alone do not directly evaluate the immediate effectiveness of the prescribed therapies on the patient's condition.
A client has just been diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform to prevent transmission to others?
A. Begin drug therapy within 72 hours of diagnosis
B. Place the client in a positive-pressure room
C. Initiate standard precautions
D. Place the client in a negative-pressure room
Correct answer:
A client diagnosed with active tuberculosis should be placed in isolation in a negative-pressure room to prevent transmission of infection to others. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room ensures that air is exhausted to the outside and received from surrounding areas, preventing tuberculin particles from traveling through the ventilation system and infecting others. Initiating standard precautions, as mentioned in choice C, is essential for infection control but is not specific to preventing transmission in the case of tuberculosis. Beginning drug therapy within 72 hours of diagnosis, as in choice A, is crucial for the treatment of tuberculosis but does not directly address preventing transmission. Placing the client in a positive-pressure room, as in choice B, is incorrect as positive-pressure rooms are used for clients with compromised immune systems to prevent outside pathogens from entering the room, which is not suitable for a client with active tuberculosis.
A client is taking a walk down the hallway when she suddenly realizes that she needs to use the restroom. Although she tries to make it to the bathroom on time, she is incontinent of urine before reaching the toilet. What type of incontinence does this situation represent?
A. Relex incontinence
B. Urge incontinence
C. Total incontinence
D. Functional incontinence
Correct answer:
Functional incontinence occurs when a client develops an urge to void but may not be able to reach the toilet in time. In this scenario, the client had the urge to use the restroom but was unable to make it in time, leading to incontinence. Functional incontinence may be related to conditions that cause the client to forget bladder sensation until the last minute, such as cognitive changes, or the client may have mobility problems that prevent her from reaching the bathroom in time.
Choice A, Reflex incontinence, is incorrect as reflex incontinence is characterized by the involuntary loss of urine due to hyperreflexia of the detrusor muscle. Choice B, Urge incontinence, is not the correct answer as urge incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine associated with a strong desire to void. Choice C, Total incontinence, is also incorrect as it refers to the continuous and unpredictable loss of urine, not specifically related to the inability to reach the toilet in time.
A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?
A. Slow, deep respirations
B. Stridor
C. Bradycardia
D. Air hunger
Correct answer:
In a patient with pulmonary edema following a myocardial infarction, the nurse should expect symptoms such as air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Air hunger refers to the feeling of needing to breathe more deeply or more often. Other symptoms of pulmonary edema can include coughing up blood or bloody froth, orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down), and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening with shortness of breath). Slow, deep respirations (Choice A) are not typical in pulmonary edema; these patients often exhibit rapid, shallow breathing due to the difficulty in oxygen exchange. Stridor (Choice B) is a high-pitched breathing sound often associated with upper airway obstruction, not typically seen in pulmonary edema. Bradycardia (Choice C), a slow heart rate, is not a characteristic symptom of pulmonary edema, which is more likely to be associated with tachycardia due to the body's compensatory response to hypoxia and increased workload on the heart.
The nurse reviews the record of a child who is suspected to have glomerulonephritis. Which statement by the child's parent should the nurse expect that is associated with this diagnosis?
A. ''His pediatrician said his kidneys are working well.''
B. ''I noticed his urine was the color of cola lately.''
C. ''I'm so glad they didn't find any protein in his urine.''
D. ''The nurse who admitted my child said his blood pressure was low.''
Correct answer:
Glomerulonephritis refers to a group of kidney disorders characterized by inflammatory injury in the glomerulus. Gross hematuria, resulting in dark, smoky, cola-colored, or brown-colored urine, is a classic symptom of glomerulonephritis. Blood urea nitrogen levels and serum creatinine levels may be elevated, indicating that kidney function is compromised. A mild to moderate elevation in protein in the urine is associated with glomerulonephritis. Hypertension is also common because of fluid volume overload secondary to the kidneys not working properly. Therefore, the parent's statement about noticing cola-colored urine aligns with the expected symptom in glomerulonephritis. The other options are less indicative of glomerulonephritis: choice A indicates normal kidney function, choice C mentions absence of protein in the urine (which is not expected in glomerulonephritis), and choice D talks about low blood pressure (hypertension is more common in glomerulonephritis).
What should the nurse anticipate or expect of an American Indian woman seeking help to regulate her diabetes?
A. Will comply with the treatment prescribed.
B. Has given up her belief in naturalistic causes of disease.
C. May also be seeking the assistance of a shaman or medicine man.
D. Will need extra help in dealing with her illness and may be experiencing a crisis of faith.
Correct answer:
When caring for an American Indian patient seeking help for diabetes, the nurse should anticipate that the patient may also seek the assistance of a shaman or medicine man in addition to biomedical treatment. This cultural practice is common among American Indians who believe in holistic healing involving body, mind, and spirit. It is important for the nurse to acknowledge and respect these cultural beliefs and practices. Choice A is incorrect because patients from different cultures may not always comply with prescribed treatments due to various factors, including cultural beliefs. Choice B is incorrect as patients seeking traditional healing methods do not necessarily give up their beliefs in naturalistic causes of disease; instead, they often complement biomedical care. Choice D is incorrect as assuming the patient is experiencing a crisis of faith is not appropriate; it is more about respecting and understanding the patient's cultural background and beliefs.
During a class on religion and spirituality, the nurse is asked to define spirituality. Which statement by the nurse best describes spirituality?
A. "Is a personal search to discover a supreme being."?
B. "Is an organized system of beliefs concerning the cause, nature, and purpose of the universe."?
C. "Is a belief that each person exists forever in some form, such as a belief in reincarnation or the afterlife."?
D. "Focuses on a connection with something bigger than oneself and a belief in transcendence."?
Correct answer:
Spirituality is a broad term that focuses on a connection with something greater than oneself and a belief in transcendence. It is a personal journey that arises from unique life experiences and the individual's quest to find purpose and meaning in life. The correct answer emphasizes the essence of spirituality, which involves seeking a connection with a higher power and believing in transcendence. Choices A, B, and C, on the other hand, define aspects of religion rather than spirituality. Choice A refers to a personal search for a supreme being, which is more aligned with religious beliefs. Choice B describes an organized system of beliefs about the universe, typically associated with religion. Choice C pertains to beliefs about existence after death, such as reincarnation or the afterlife, which are often religious concepts. Therefore, the best description of spirituality is focusing on a connection with something beyond oneself and a belief in transcendence.
Which action should the nurse take to evaluate treatment effectiveness for a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy?
A. Ask the patient to extend both arms forward.
B. Request that the patient walk with eyes closed.
C. Ask the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver.
D. Observe the patient's breathing pattern.
Correct answer:
To evaluate treatment effectiveness for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy, requesting the patient to walk with eyes closed is crucial. This test assesses the patient's balance, gait, and coordination, which can be impaired in hepatic encephalopathy due to altered mental status and brain function. Walking with eyes closed challenges the patient's sensory input and proprioception, providing valuable information on improvement or deterioration in neurological function. Asking the patient to extend both arms forward is used to check for asterixis, a sign often seen in hepatic encephalopathy, but it is not specific for evaluating treatment effectiveness. Performing the Valsalva maneuver is unrelated to assessing hepatic encephalopathy and is more commonly used in cardiac evaluations. Observing the patient's breathing pattern may be important in other conditions but is not directly relevant to evaluating treatment effectiveness for hepatic encephalopathy.
Jaime has a diagnosis of schizophrenia with negative symptoms. In planning care for the client, Nurse Brienne would anticipate a problem with:
A. Auditory hallucinations
B. Bizarre behaviors
C. Ideas of reference
D. Motivation for activities
Correct answer:
In clients with negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as Jaime, a common problem is avolition, which is the lack of motivation for activities. These 'negative' symptoms are characterized by inexpressive faces, blank looks, monotone speech, few gestures, and a seeming lack of interest in the world. Patients may also experience an inability to feel pleasure or act spontaneously. It is crucial to differentiate between the lack of expression and lack of feeling, as well as between lack of will and lack of activity. Auditory hallucinations (choice A) are positive symptoms, not typically associated with negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Bizarre behaviors (choice B) are more aligned with positive symptoms like disorganized behavior. Ideas of reference (choice C) involve incorrectly interpreting casual incidents and external events as having direct reference to oneself, which is not directly related to motivation for activities seen in negative symptoms.
A 16-month-old child has just been admitted to the hospital. As the nurse assigned to this child enters the hospital room for the first time, the toddler runs to the mother, clings to her, and begins to cry. What would be the initial action by the nurse?
A. Arrange to change client care assignments
B. Explain that this behavior is expected
C. Discuss the appropriate use of 'time-out'
D. Explain that the child needs extra attention
Correct answer:
When encountering a 16-month-old child exhibiting fear of strangers by clinging to the parent and crying, it is essential for the nurse to explain that this behavior is expected. Fear of strangers typically emerges around 6-8 months of age and can continue into the toddler years and beyond. This behavior is a normal part of development as the child is displaying attachment and trust in familiar caregivers. Changing client care assignments, discussing 'time-out,' or suggesting the child needs extra attention are not appropriate initial actions in this situation. Changing care assignments is unnecessary and does not address the child's emotional needs. Discussing 'time-out' is not relevant as it pertains to discipline strategies for older children. Suggesting the child needs extra attention may misinterpret the situation; the child's behavior is a normal response to a new environment and does not necessarily indicate a need for additional attention.
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 2 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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