NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questions, set 11
NCLEX-PN · health promotion
NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questionsset 11
You teach screening, development, and prevention in the words a patient can use. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-PN exam guide or more NCLEX-PN practice questions.
Five health promotion questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A client, age 28, is 8 1/2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?
A. vitiligo
B. erythema
C. cyanosis
D. chloasma
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — chloasma
Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes during pregnancy. Vitiligo is characterized by depigmented patches, erythema is redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to poor circulation or lack of oxygen, none of which are typical skin-color variations during pregnancy. Therefore, in a pregnant client, the most likely normal skin-color variation to be displayed is chloasma.
Question 2
A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?
A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
D. The test results are normal.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.
Question 3
A client is taught about healthy dietary measures and the MyPlate food plan. How many of his grains should be whole grains according to the MyPlate food plan?
A. One-quarter
B. One-third
C. One-half
D. Two-thirds
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — One-half
The correct answer is 'One-half.' According to the MyPlate food plan, at least half of the grains consumed daily should be whole grains. This ensures a well-balanced and healthy diet. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the dietary recommendation provided by the MyPlate food plan. One-quarter, one-third, and two-thirds do not represent the appropriate proportion of whole grains as advised by the plan, which emphasizes the importance of including a significant portion of whole grains in one's diet.
Question 4
A pregnant client is being educated by a nurse on nutrition and foods rich in folic acid. Which food item does the nurse inform the client contains the highest amount of folic acid?
A. Pinto beans
B. Lettuce
C. Oranges
D. Broccoli
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Pinto beans
Pinto beans contain the highest amount of folic acid among the options provided, with 294 mcg per 1-cup serving. Oranges contain 44 mcg per 1-cup serving, lettuce contains 60 mcg per 1-cup serving, and broccoli contains 78 mcg per 1-cup serving. Therefore, pinto beans are the best choice for increasing folic acid intake during pregnancy. Choosing oranges, lettuce, or broccoli would not provide as much folic acid compared to pinto beans, making them less optimal choices for meeting folic acid requirements during pregnancy.
Question 5
When performing an eye examination, which area can a healthcare provider best visualize using an ophthalmoscope?
A. Iris
B. Cornea
C. Optic disc
D. Conjunctiva
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Optic disc
An ophthalmoscope is a tool used to visualize the internal structures of the eye during an examination. The optic disc, located on the internal surface of the retina, can be best visualized using an ophthalmoscope. The iris, cornea, and conjunctiva are superficial structures that can be examined without the need for an ophthalmoscope. Therefore, the correct answer is the optic disc. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are external structures that can be examined directly without the use of an ophthalmoscope.
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Question 6
A nurse is preparing to assess the dorsalis pedis pulse. The nurse palpates this pulse by placing the fingertips in which location?
A. Behind the knee
B. Lateral to the extensor tendon of the big toe
C. In the groove between the malleolus and the Achilles tendon
D. Below the inguinal ligament, halfway between the pubis and the anterior superior iliac spines
Correct answer:
The correct location to palpate the dorsalis pedis pulse is lateral to and parallel with the extensor tendon of the big toe. Choices A, C, and D describe the locations for other pulses - popliteal, posterior tibial, and femoral artery respectively. The popliteal pulse is found behind the knee, the posterior tibial pulse is located in the groove between the malleolus and the Achilles tendon, and the femoral artery is situated below the inguinal ligament, halfway between the pubis and the anterior superior iliac spines.
A laboring client is experiencing late decelerations. Which position should she be placed in?
A. left lateral
B. lithotomy
C. semi-Fowler's
D. right lateral
Correct answer:
The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the laboring client in the left lateral position is beneficial because it promotes blood flow to the placenta. Late decelerations indicate potential issues with fetal oxygenation, and changing the position to left lateral can help improve placental perfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lithotomy, semi-Fowler's, and right lateral positions do not specifically address the need for improved blood flow to the placenta in cases of late decelerations.
A nurse is auscultating for vesicular breath sounds in a client. Of which quality would the nurse expect these normal breath sounds to be?
A. Harsh
B. Hollow
C. Tubular
D. Rustling
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: 'Rustling.' Vesicular breath sounds are described as rustling and resemble the sound of wind blowing through trees. Harsh, hollow, and tubular sounds are associated with bronchial (tracheal) breath sounds, not vesicular breath sounds. Harsh sounds are high-pitched, hollow sounds are reverberating, and tubular sounds are like blowing air into a tube. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect descriptions of vesicular breath sounds and are more characteristic of bronchial breath sounds.
While reviewing a client's health care record, a nurse notes documentation of the presence of borborygmus on abdominal assessment. Which finding does the nurse expect to note when auscultating the client's bowel sounds?
A. Hypoactive bowel sounds
B. Low-pitched bowel sounds
C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
D. An absence of bowel sounds
Correct answer:
Borborygmus, a type of hyperactive bowel sound, is fairly common. It indicates hyperperistalsis, and the client may describe it as a growling stomach. Hyperactive bowel sounds are loud, high-pitched, and rushing sounds. Hypoactive bowel sounds are low-pitched and may occur post-surgery or with peritoneal inflammation. Low-pitched bowel sounds are not typically associated with borborygmus. An absence of bowel sounds indicates a potentially serious issue like an ileus, where bowel motility is decreased or absent.
An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results of these tests indicate that the client's cardiac output is 5 L/min. The nurse makes which conclusion?
A. The client has a low cardiac output.
B. The client has a high cardiac output.
C. The client has a normal cardiac output.
D. The client will need a blood transfusion.
Correct answer:
A cardiac output of 5 L/min falls within the normal range for a resting adult, which typically ranges between 4 and 6 L/min. Cardiac output is calculated as the stroke volume (volume of blood in each systole) multiplied by the heart rate. Therefore, a cardiac output of 5 L/min is considered normal. Choices A and B are incorrect as they misinterpret the result as either low or high, which is not the case based on the provided information. Choice D is unrelated to the client's cardiac output and thus incorrect.
During a throat assessment, a healthcare provider asks a client to stick out their tongue and notices it protrudes in the midline. Which cranial nerve is being tested?
A. Cranial nerve X
B. Cranial nerve V
C. Cranial nerve IX
D. Cranial nerve XII
Correct answer:
The correct answer is cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). When testing cranial nerve XII, the healthcare provider inspects the symmetry and movement of the tongue. The tongue should protrude in the midline when the client sticks it out. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve) are tested by depressing the tongue with a blade to observe pharyngeal movement and gag reflex. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) is responsible for testing the muscles of mastication, not tongue protrusion.
A nurse assisting with data collection uses the back of the hand to feel the client's skin on both arms and notes that the skin is warm. The nurse makes which determination?
A. The client has a fever.
B. The skin temperature is normal.
C. The client needs to drink additional fluids.
D. The client needs to have the blanket removed.
Correct answer:
To assess skin temperature, the nurse would first note the temperature of their own hands. Then, using the backs of the hands to palpate the client's skin bilaterally, warmth suggests normal circulatory status if the skin is warm and the temperature is equal bilaterally. The hands and feet may feel slightly cooler in a cool environment. Options A, C, and D are incorrect responses. A warm skin temperature does not indicate a fever, the need for additional fluids, or the need to have the blanket removed.
When examining the abdomen, a nurse auscultates before palpating and percussing the abdomen. The nurse performs the assessment in this manner for which reason?
A. It is less painful for the client.
B. Palpation and percussion can increase peristalsis.
C. It identifies any potential areas of abdominal tenderness.
D. It gives the client more time to become comfortable with the examiner.
Correct answer:
When performing an abdominal assessment, the nurse auscultates the abdomen after inspection. Auscultation is done before palpation and percussion because these assessment techniques can increase peristalsis, which would yield a false interpretation of bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent false interpretations of bowel sounds due to increased peristalsis caused by palpation and percussion. Options A, C, and D provide incorrect reasons for auscultating the abdomen before palpating and percussing it.
The client has an order for 0.45 mg of Diltiazem. The medication vial has a concentration of 3 mg/mL. How many mL of the drug should be administered?
A. 0.15 mL
B. 6.6 mL
C. 1.5 mL
D. 0.65 Ml
Correct answer:
To calculate the amount of drug to be administered, divide the ordered dose by the concentration of the medication in the vial. In this case, 0.45 mg ÷ 3 mg/mL = 0.15 mL. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.15 mL.
Choice B (6.6 mL) is incorrect as it does not result from the correct calculation. Choice C (1.5 mL) is incorrect as it is not the result of dividing the ordered dose by the concentration. Choice D (0.65 mL) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
A nurse assisting with data collection of a client gathers both subjective and objective data. Which finding would the nurse document as subjective data?
A. The client appears anxious.
B. Blood pressure is 170/80 mm Hg.
C. The client states that he has a rash.
D. The client has diminished reflexes in the legs.
Correct answer:
Subjective data are information provided by the client about their symptoms, feelings, or experiences. In this case, the client reporting having a rash is subjective data because it is based on what the client says. Choices A, B, and D involve observations or measurements made by the nurse (anxious appearance, blood pressure, reflexes), which fall under objective data. Objective data are observable and measurable data obtained through physical examination, vital signs assessment, and laboratory tests.
NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questions, set 11 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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