You pick airway, oxygen, and breathing actions in the order a nurse actually moves. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five respiratory questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
An older adult is brought to the emergency department by a family member who reports a moderate change in mental status and mild cough. The client is afebrile. The primary health care provider orders a chest x-ray. The family member questions why this is needed since the symptoms seem so vague. What response by the nurse is best?
A. Chest x-rays are always ordered when we suspect pneumonia.
B. Older people often have vague symptoms, so an x-ray is essential.
C. The x-ray can be done and read before laboratory work is reported.
D. We are testing for any possible source of infection in the client.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Older people often have vague symptoms, so an x-ray is essential.
The correct answer is B because older adults often present with atypical or vague symptoms when they have an underlying infection, including pneumonia. It is crucial to assess for pneumonia in older adults promptly because they may not exhibit classic signs like fever. An x-ray is essential to confirm or rule out pneumonia as it allows for visualization of lung abnormalities.
Choice A is incorrect because not all older adults with vague symptoms automatically have pneumonia, and ordering a chest x-ray is based on clinical judgment. Choice C is incorrect as the timing of the x-ray in relation to laboratory work is not the primary reason for ordering it. Choice D is incorrect because the x-ray is specifically to assess for pneumonia, not for general infection sources.
Question 2
The medical nurse who works on a pulmonology unit is aware that several respiratory conditions can affect lung tissue compliance. The presence of what condition would lead to an increase in lung compliance?
A. Emphysema
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Pleural effusion
D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Emphysema
The correct answer is A: Emphysema. Emphysema leads to an increase in lung compliance due to the destruction of alveolar walls, resulting in decreased elastic recoil. This decreased recoil makes it easier for the lungs to expand and increases overall lung compliance.
Incorrect choices:
B: Pulmonary fibrosis - Pulmonary fibrosis causes lung tissue scarring and stiffening, resulting in decreased lung compliance.
C: Pleural effusion - Pleural effusion is an accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which can restrict lung expansion and decrease lung compliance.
D: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) - ARDS causes inflammation and fluid buildup in the lungs, leading to decreased lung compliance due to increased stiffness and reduced ability to expand.
Question 3
The nurse is planning care plans for multiple patients. Which patient does the nurse anticipate will experience the highest level of pain?
A. 79-year-old experiencing pain related to osteoarthritis
B. 35-year-old experiencing pain related to a recent fracture
C. 50-year-old experiencing pain related to shingles
D. 28-year-old experiencing pain related to a surgical incision
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — 79-year-old experiencing pain related to osteoarthritis
The correct answer is A because older adults, like the 79-year-old patient with osteoarthritis, often have a lower pain threshold and may experience chronic pain due to age-related changes in the musculoskeletal system. Additionally, osteoarthritis is a degenerative condition that causes inflammation and pain in the joints, leading to persistent discomfort. While the other patients are experiencing acute pain related to recent events like a fracture, shingles, or surgical incision, the chronic nature of osteoarthritis pain in an elderly individual typically results in a higher overall pain level. Furthermore, older adults may also have comorbidities that can complicate pain management, making it more challenging to achieve adequate pain relief in this population.
Question 4
Which of these correctly orders the structures through which air passes during inhalation?
During inhalation, air follows a specific path through the respiratory tract. It enters via the nasal cavity or mouth, then reaches the pharynx, a shared passage for air and food. Next, it passes the larynx, the voice box, which directs air downward. The trachea, or windpipe, follows, channeling air into the bronchi, which branch into the lungs. The correct sequence pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi reflects this anatomical flow. Other options misplace structures: trachea before larynx reverses the order, and larynx leading directly to bronchi skips essential segments. This pathway ensures air is filtered, warmed, and humidified before reaching the lungs, critical for efficient gas exchange and respiratory protection, a foundational concept in pulmonary anatomy.
Question 5
In which part of the respiratory system does gaseous exchange take place?
A. Alveoli
B. Pharynx
C. Larynx
D. Trachea
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Alveoli
Gaseous exchange occurs in the alveoli, tiny air sacs in the lungs where oxygen diffuses into the blood and carbon dioxide exits, facilitated by their thin walls and vast surface area surrounded by capillaries. The pharynx conducts air but lacks exchange surfaces. The larynx manages airflow and sound, not diffusion. The trachea transports air to the lungs, lined with cilia and mucus for filtering, not gas exchange. Alveoli's unique structure thin, moist, and capillary-rich optimizes this process, driven by concentration gradients, making them the respiratory system's exchange hub. This distinction is vital for understanding respiration's purpose: delivering oxygen to tissues and removing waste, a cornerstone of pulmonary physiology and clinical respiratory care.
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Question 6
All of the following shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right EXCEPT
A. Decreased pH
B. Increased temperature
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Increased pCO2
Correct answer:
Carbon monoxide (CO, choice C) doesn't shift the Oâ‚‚ dissociation curve right, making it the exception. Decreased pH (choice A), increased temperature (choice B), and increased pCOâ‚‚ (choice D, repeated as E) all reduce Hb-Oâ‚‚ affinity (Bohr effect), shifting the curve right to favor Oâ‚‚ unloading. CO binds Hb with high affinity, forming COHb, which left-shifts the curve for unbound Hb, increasing Oâ‚‚ affinity and impairing release opposite to a right shift. Acidosis (A), heat (B), and COâ‚‚ (D) enhance tissue Oâ‚‚ delivery, adaptive in exercise or hypoxia. CO's toxic effect mimics high Oâ‚‚ saturation, masking hypoxia, and doesn't aid unloading. Thus, C's distinct leftward action excludes it from right-shift factors.
A client seen in the emergency department reports fever,fatigue and dry cough but no other upper respiratory symptoms. A chest x-ray reveals mediastinal widening. What action by the nurse is best?
A. Collect a sputum sample for culture by deep suctioning.
B. Inform the client that oral antibiotics will be needed for 60 days.
C. Place the client on Airborne Precautions immediately.
D. Tell the client that directly observed therapy is needed.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Inform the client that oral antibiotics will be needed for 60 days. This is the best action because the client is showing symptoms consistent with tuberculosis, such as fever, fatigue, dry cough, and mediastinal widening on chest x-ray. Treatment for tuberculosis typically involves a combination of oral antibiotics for a prolonged period, usually 6-9 months. Collecting a sputum sample for culture by deep suctioning (A) may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis but is not the priority at this moment. Placing the client on Airborne Precautions immediately (C) is important once the diagnosis is confirmed, not the initial action. Directly observed therapy (D) is a method to ensure adherence to medication but is not the immediate next step.
A person met with an accident and died instantly without any injury to heart, brain, stomach and kidney. One of the following is a reason for his death
A. Intestine got twisted
B. RBC became coagulated
C. Stomach stopped digestion
D. Diaphragm got punctured
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Diaphragm got punctured. The diaphragm is a crucial muscle responsible for breathing. If it gets punctured, it can lead to immediate death due to respiratory failure. In this scenario, since there are no injuries to vital organs like the heart, brain, stomach, or kidney, the only plausible reason for instant death would be a punctured diaphragm affecting the person's ability to breathe.
A: Intestine getting twisted would not lead to instant death without affecting the heart, brain, stomach, or kidney.
B: RBC becoming coagulated would not result in immediate death without directly impacting vital organs.
C: Stomach stopping digestion is not a life-threatening condition that would cause instant death without injury to vital organs.
A client seen in the emergency department reports fever,fatigue and dry cough but no other upper respiratory symptoms. A chest x-ray reveals mediastinal widening. What action by the nurse is best?
A. Collect a sputum sample for culture by deep suctioning.
B. Inform the client that oral antibiotics will be needed for 60 days.
C. Place the client on Airborne Precautions immediately.
D. Tell the client that directly observed therapy is needed.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Inform the client that oral antibiotics will be needed for 60 days. This is the best action because the client is showing symptoms consistent with tuberculosis, such as fever, fatigue, dry cough, and mediastinal widening on chest x-ray. Treatment for tuberculosis typically involves a combination of oral antibiotics for a prolonged period, usually 6-9 months. Collecting a sputum sample for culture by deep suctioning (A) may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis but is not the priority at this moment. Placing the client on Airborne Precautions immediately (C) is important once the diagnosis is confirmed, not the initial action. Directly observed therapy (D) is a method to ensure adherence to medication but is not the immediate next step.
A man with normal lungs and arterial pCOâ‚‚ of 40 mmHg takes an overdose of barbiturates, which half his ventilation but don't change his COâ‚‚ output. What does his arterial pCOâ‚‚ rise to?
A. 50
B. 60
C. 70
D. 80
Correct answer:
With ventilation halved (e.g., from 6 L/min to 3 L/min) and CO₂ output unchanged, arterial pCO₂ rises to 80 mmHg (choice D). Normally, pCO₂ = (V̇CO₂ × K) / V̇A, where V̇CO₂ is CO₂ production, K is a constant (≈863), and V̇A is alveolar ventilation. If pCO₂ is 40 mmHg at 6 L/min, V̇CO₂ = (40 × 6) / 863 ≈ 0.278 L/min. Halving ventilation to 3 L/min, new pCO₂ = (0.278 × 863) / 3 ≈ 80 mmHg. Choice A (50) underestimates doubling; B (60) fits a 33% drop; C (70) is arbitrary. Barbiturates depress respiratory drive, reducing V̇A without altering metabolism (V̇CO₂), doubling pCO₂ as ventilation inversely governs it. Thus, D is correct.
The impulse for voluntary muscles for forceful breathing starts in
A. Medulla (Pons)
B. Vagus nerve
C. Cerebral hemispheres
D. Spinal cord
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Cerebral hemispheres. The impulse for voluntary muscles for forceful breathing originates in the cerebral hemispheres where conscious control over breathing is regulated. The cerebral cortex sends signals to the respiratory muscles to increase or decrease breathing effort based on the body's needs. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Medulla (Pons) - This region of the brainstem is responsible for automatic breathing control, not voluntary forceful breathing.
B: Vagus nerve - The vagus nerve is not directly involved in initiating voluntary breathing movements.
D: Spinal cord - While the spinal cord plays a role in coordinating some aspects of breathing, it is not the primary center for voluntary forceful breathing control.
all of the following are present in the bronchopulmonary segment except:
A. segmental bronchus
B. segmental pulmonary vein
C. nerves
D. lymphatics
Correct answer:
A bronchopulmonary segment is a functional lung unit supplied by a segmental (tertiary) bronchus (A), segmental pulmonary artery (E, implied), nerves (C), and lymphatics (D), all within its connective tissue boundaries. The segmental bronchus delivers air, the artery supplies blood, and nerves and lymphatics manage innervation and drainage. However, pulmonary veins (B) are not segment-specific; they run intersegmentally, collecting blood from multiple segments into larger lobar veins, not confined within a single segment's borders. This venous drainage pattern ensures efficient oxygenation return but excludes B from being a defining component of the segment's structure, unlike the artery and bronchus, which are segmentally discrete. Thus, B is the exception.
The medical nurse who works on a pulmonology unit is aware that several respiratory conditions can affect lung tissue compliance. The presence of what condition would lead to an increase in lung compliance?
A. Emphysema
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Pleural effusion
D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Emphysema. Emphysema leads to an increase in lung compliance due to the destruction of alveolar walls, resulting in decreased elastic recoil. This decreased recoil makes it easier for the lungs to expand and increases overall lung compliance.
Incorrect choices:
B: Pulmonary fibrosis - Pulmonary fibrosis causes lung tissue scarring and stiffening, resulting in decreased lung compliance.
C: Pleural effusion - Pleural effusion is an accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which can restrict lung expansion and decrease lung compliance.
D: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) - ARDS causes inflammation and fluid buildup in the lungs, leading to decreased lung compliance due to increased stiffness and reduced ability to expand.
A patient tells the LPN/LVN that using a mentholated rub, which is bought as an over-the-counter product, helps with muscle pain. Which of these instructions should the nurse give the patient?
A. Wash your hands well after applying the menthol rub.
B. Apply the menthol rub immediately before exercise.
C. Apply the menthol rub to the area of pain.
D. Apply the menthol rub and cover it with a warm towel.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: "Wash your hands well after applying the menthol rub." This is important because menthol rubs can be irritating to the skin, and washing your hands after application helps prevent accidentally transferring the menthol to sensitive areas like the eyes or mucous membranes. Option B is incorrect because applying the rub before exercise may cause increased irritation due to sweating. Option C is incorrect because the rub should be applied to the area of pain to maximize its effectiveness. Option D is incorrect because covering the menthol rub with a warm towel can intensify the sensation and may lead to skin irritation. Therefore, washing hands after applying is the most essential instruction to prevent any potential complications.
When the patient begins to complain of abdominal cramping during a tap-water enema, the nurse should:
A. Stop administration of the enema.
B. Lower the height of the container of water.
C. Clamp the enema tubing and withdraw it slowly.
D. Advance the tubing 1 to 2 inches.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Lower the height of the container of water. Abdominal cramping during a tap-water enema can be a sign of the solution flowing too fast or being too cold, causing discomfort. Lowering the height of the container will decrease the flow rate, potentially easing the cramping. Stopping the administration (option A) may not address the root cause of the cramping. Clamping and withdrawing the tubing (option C) can be uncomfortable for the patient and may not resolve the issue. Advancing the tubing (option D) can exacerbate the cramping. Therefore, adjusting the height of the container is the most appropriate action to alleviate the discomfort and ensure the enema procedure proceeds smoothly.
RN exams respiratory practice questions, set 9 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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