You pick airway, oxygen, and breathing actions in the order a nurse actually moves. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five respiratory questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
While bathing a patient, the nurse notes that a transdermal patch that was meant to be on the patient for 3 days is now gone on the second day. What action should the nurse take?
A. Document the loss and apply a fresh patch to be replaced in 3 days.
B. Apply a new patch and discard the old one.
C. Report the loss to the physician.
D. Leave the site open to air.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Document the loss and apply a fresh patch to be replaced in 3 days.
The correct action for the nurse to take is to document the loss of the transdermal patch and apply a fresh one to be replaced in 3 days. This is important for maintaining the patient's medication regimen and ensuring consistent delivery of the prescribed medication. By documenting the loss, the nurse keeps a record of the situation for accountability and continuity of care. Applying a new patch helps ensure that the patient continues to receive the intended therapeutic benefits without interruption. Option B is incorrect because discarding the old patch without replacing it would result in missed doses of medication. Reporting the loss to the physician (Option C) may be necessary in some cases but is not the immediate action to take. Leaving the site open to air (Option D) is not appropriate as it does not address the need for medication delivery. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario.
Question 2
The patient on frequent doses of meperidine (Demerol) complains of constipation. Which initial intervention is best?
A. Increase oral fluid intake.
B. Administer a laxative.
C. Encourage the patient to walk.
D. Decrease oral fluid intake.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Increase oral fluid intake.
The correct initial intervention for a patient on frequent doses of meperidine (Demerol) complaining of constipation is to increase oral fluid intake (option A). Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cause constipation as a side effect due to its effects on the gastrointestinal system. Increasing fluid intake can help soften stool and promote bowel movements, potentially alleviating constipation. Administering a laxative (option B) should be considered if increasing fluid intake alone does not provide relief. Encouraging the patient to walk (option C) can also help stimulate bowel motility and aid in relieving constipation. Decreasing oral fluid intake (option D) is not recommended as it can exacerbate constipation by leading to dehydration and further hardening of stool. Therefore, the best initial intervention to address constipation in this case is to increase oral fluid intake to promote bowel regularity.
Question 3
The nurse is caring for a patient who is 1-day postoperative following a colon resection. The patient has degenerative joint disease and uses a pain medication patch to control this chronic pain. Which consideration is most important when planning care for this patient?
A. Realize that this patient will most likely require more pain medication than most patients undergoing a colon resection.
B. Ensure that the pain medication patch is removed before surgery.
C. Delay administering the pain medication patch until after surgery.
D. Monitor the patient closely for signs of pain.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Realize that this patient will most likely require more pain medication than most patients undergoing a colon resection.
The correct answer is A. Patients with chronic pain conditions, such as degenerative joint disease, may have a higher tolerance to pain medication and may require higher doses for adequate pain control postoperatively. This is important for the nurse to consider when planning care for this patient to ensure their pain is effectively managed. Removing the pain medication patch before surgery (option B) could lead to inadequate pain control postoperatively. Delaying administering the pain medication patch until after surgery (option C) may result in uncontrolled pain during the immediate postoperative period. Monitoring the patient closely for signs of pain (option D) is important, but the key consideration is anticipating the need for higher doses of pain medication due to the chronic pain condition.
Question 4
A nurse is preparing a client for a cardiac catheterization. What should the nurse ensure?
A. Client is NPO for 8 hours before the procedure.
B. Client has signed an informed consent.
C. Client is given a sedative before the procedure.
D. Client\'s blood type is verified.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Client has signed an informed consent.
The correct answer is B: 'Client has signed an informed consent.' Before any invasive procedure like a cardiac catheterization, it is crucial for the client to provide informed consent after understanding the risks, benefits, and alternatives. This ensures that the client is fully aware and agrees to the procedure. While being NPO (A) may be necessary for some procedures, it is not specifically required for a cardiac catheterization. Administering a sedative (C) may be part of the procedure, but obtaining informed consent is the priority. Verifying the client's blood type (D) is important for transfusions but is not directly related to preparing for a cardiac catheterization. Therefore, ensuring that the client has signed an informed consent is the most critical step in preparing for the procedure.
Question 5
Although the patient with a kidney stone denies pain, the nurse assesses cues that indicate that pain is perceived. Which assessments indicate that pain may be present? (Select all that apply.)
A. Increased pulse rate
B. Diaphoresis
C. Muscle tension
D. All of the above
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — All of the above
In the scenario provided, the patient denies pain, but the nurse can still assess for cues indicating pain perception. Increased pulse rate, diaphoresis (excessive sweating), and muscle tension are all physiological responses commonly associated with pain. An increased pulse rate is the body's natural response to pain as the sympathetic nervous system is activated. Diaphoresis is often seen in response to acute pain as the body releases stress hormones. Muscle tension is a common reaction to pain as the body braces itself. Therefore, all of the listed assessments (increased pulse rate, diaphoresis, and muscle tension) can indicate the presence of pain even if the patient denies it. Selecting 'All of the above' as the correct answer encompasses these key physiological indicators of pain perception.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving a strong narcotic for pain control. During the assessment, the nurse notes the patient\'s respiratory rate to be 8 respirations per minute. Which medication may be necessary for this patient?
A. Naloxone (Narcan)
B. Atropine
C. Epinephrine
D. Lidocaine
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is a medication used as an opioid antagonist to reverse the effects of narcotics, such as respiratory depression. In this case, the patient's respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute indicates significant respiratory depression, which is a common adverse effect of strong narcotics. Administering naloxone can help reverse the respiratory depression and improve the patient's breathing. Atropine (B) is used for bradycardia, not respiratory depression caused by narcotics. Epinephrine (C) is used for severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Lidocaine (D) is a local anesthetic and not indicated for respiratory depression. Therefore, the most appropriate medication for this patient is Naloxone to reverse the narcotic effects on respiration.
A nurse is providing education on stroke prevention. What is a key risk factor?
A. High cholesterol
B. Low blood pressure
C. Physical inactivity
D. Genetic predisposition
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: 'High cholesterol.' High cholesterol is a key risk factor for stroke because it can lead to the buildup of plaque in the arteries, increasing the risk of blockages and potential stroke. Managing cholesterol levels through a healthy diet, exercise, and medications if necessary can help reduce this risk. While low blood pressure (choice B) is generally considered beneficial, extremely low blood pressure can also increase the risk of stroke. Physical inactivity (choice C) is a risk factor for various health conditions, including stroke, as it can contribute to obesity and other risk factors. While genetic predisposition (choice D) can play a role in stroke risk, modifiable factors like high cholesterol are important to address through prevention strategies.
The nurse is caring for the patient with neuropathic pain. Which agents will most effectively control this patient\'s pain? (Select all that apply.)
A. Antidepressants
B. Anti-inflammatory agents
C. Anticonvulsants
D. All of the above
Correct answer:
Neuropathic pain is often difficult to manage and typically requires a multimodal approach for effective pain control. Antidepressants, such as tricyclic antidepressants and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors, have been found to be effective in managing neuropathic pain by altering neurotransmitter levels. Anti-inflammatory agents may provide some relief for neuropathic pain, especially if inflammation is contributing to the pain. Anticonvulsants, like gabapentin and pregabalin, are commonly used to manage neuropathic pain by stabilizing nerve cell membranes. Therefore, all of the above options - antidepressants, anti-inflammatory agents, and anticonvulsants - can play a crucial role in effectively controlling neuropathic pain, making option D the correct answer.
An older adult is brought to the emergency department by a family member who reports a moderate change in mental status and mild cough. The client is afebrile. The primary health care provider orders a chest x-ray. The family member questions why this is needed since the symptoms seem so vague. What response by the nurse is best?
A. Chest x-rays are always ordered when we suspect pneumonia.
B. Older people often have vague symptoms, so an x-ray is essential.
C. The x-ray can be done and read before laboratory work is reported.
D. We are testing for any possible source of infection in the client.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because older adults often present with atypical or vague symptoms when they have an underlying infection, including pneumonia. It is crucial to assess for pneumonia in older adults promptly because they may not exhibit classic signs like fever. An x-ray is essential to confirm or rule out pneumonia as it allows for visualization of lung abnormalities.
Choice A is incorrect because not all older adults with vague symptoms automatically have pneumonia, and ordering a chest x-ray is based on clinical judgment. Choice C is incorrect as the timing of the x-ray in relation to laboratory work is not the primary reason for ordering it. Choice D is incorrect because the x-ray is specifically to assess for pneumonia, not for general infection sources.
A 7-year-old client is brought to the E.R. He's tachypneic and afebrile and has a respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute and a nonproductive cough. He recently had a cold. From his history, the client may have which of the following?
A. Acute asthma
B. Bronchial pneumonia
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D. Emphysema
Correct answer:
Acute asthma fits this 7-year-old's presentation: tachypnea (36 breaths/minute, above normal 18-30), nonproductive cough, and recent cold viral triggers often precipitate asthma exacerbations in children. Bronchial pneumonia (B) typically includes fever and productive cough, absent here. COPD (C) and emphysema (D) are adult chronic conditions from long-term damage (e.g., smoking), unlikely at this age. Asthma's reversible bronchoconstriction causes rapid breathing and dry cough, especially post-infection, aligning with history and symptoms. No fever rules out infection-driven pneumonia, and youth excludes degenerative lung diseases. This diagnosis guides urgent bronchodilator use, critical in pediatric ER settings to reverse airflow obstruction and prevent escalation.
Exhaling into a paper bag and rebreathing the exhaled air would be expected to
A. alert the brain.
B. increase the breathing rate.
C. stimulate the carotid bodies.
D. b and c only
Correct answer:
Exhaling into a paper bag and rebreathing the exhaled air leads to an increase in carbon dioxide levels in the body. This increase stimulates the carotid bodies, which detect changes in blood chemistry, leading to an increase in breathing rate. This process does not directly alert the brain, as high carbon dioxide levels typically cause drowsiness rather than alertness. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it correctly identifies the effects of rebreathing on both breathing rate and carotid body stimulation. Choice A is incorrect because rebreathing does not directly alert the brain. Choice B is incorrect as rebreathing actually decreases the need for increased breathing rate initially. Choice C alone is incorrect as it does not address the effect on breathing rate.
A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled to undergo a thoracentesis. Which intervention should the nurse complete prior to the procedure?
A. Measure oxygen saturation before and after a 12-minute walk.
B. Verify that the client understands all possible complications.
C. Explain the procedure in detail to the client and the family.
D. Validate that informed consent has been given by the client.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Validate that informed consent has been given by the client. This is crucial before any invasive procedure to ensure the client fully understands the risks, benefits, and alternatives. This protects the client's autonomy and promotes ethical practice.
Choice A is incorrect because measuring oxygen saturation before and after a 12-minute walk is not relevant to preparing for a thoracentesis.
Choice B is incorrect because while it is important for the client to understand possible complications, verifying this understanding is not the priority before the procedure.
Choice C is incorrect because explaining the procedure in detail to the client and family is important, but ensuring informed consent comes first to respect the client's autonomy.
Which one is not correct? A patient suffering from anaemia with an Hb concentration of 5g/100ml
A. Decreased TPR
B. Increased cardiac output
C. Increased 2,3 DPG in RBC
D. PaO2 will be decreased
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because in a patient with anemia and low hemoglobin concentration, their PaO2 will be decreased due to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. This is a result of decreased oxygen saturation in the blood. A: Decreased TPR is incorrect because anemia can lead to compensatory mechanisms such as increased sympathetic tone and vasoconstriction, resulting in increased total peripheral resistance. B: Increased cardiac output is incorrect as the heart may need to work harder to maintain oxygen delivery to tissues due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity. C: Increased 2,3 DPG in RBC is incorrect because anemia can lead to decreased 2,3 DPG levels, which shift the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the left, impairing oxygen release to tissues.
Exhaling into a paper bag and rebreathing the exhaled air would be expected to
A. alert the brain.
B. increase the breathing rate.
C. stimulate the carotid bodies.
D. b and c only
Correct answer:
Exhaling into a paper bag and rebreathing the exhaled air leads to an increase in carbon dioxide levels in the body. This increase stimulates the carotid bodies, which detect changes in blood chemistry, leading to an increase in breathing rate. This process does not directly alert the brain, as high carbon dioxide levels typically cause drowsiness rather than alertness. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it correctly identifies the effects of rebreathing on both breathing rate and carotid body stimulation. Choice A is incorrect because rebreathing does not directly alert the brain. Choice B is incorrect as rebreathing actually decreases the need for increased breathing rate initially. Choice C alone is incorrect as it does not address the effect on breathing rate.
Which one is not correct? A patient suffering from anaemia with an Hb concentration of 5g/100ml
A. Decreased TPR
B. Increased cardiac output
C. Increased 2,3 DPG in RBC
D. PaO2 will be decreased
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because in a patient with anemia and low hemoglobin concentration, their PaO2 will be decreased due to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. This is a result of decreased oxygen saturation in the blood. A: Decreased TPR is incorrect because anemia can lead to compensatory mechanisms such as increased sympathetic tone and vasoconstriction, resulting in increased total peripheral resistance. B: Increased cardiac output is incorrect as the heart may need to work harder to maintain oxygen delivery to tissues due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity. C: Increased 2,3 DPG in RBC is incorrect because anemia can lead to decreased 2,3 DPG levels, which shift the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the left, impairing oxygen release to tissues.
RN exams respiratory practice questions, set 8 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
