RN exams pharmacology practice questions set 24

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The correct answer is B: 'Limit phosphorus-rich foods.' In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter out phosphorus, leading to an accumulation in the blood. Excessive phosphorus levels can contribute to bone and cardiovascular issues. Therefore, limiting phosphorus-rich foods like dairy products, nuts, and whole grains is crucial in managing the disease. Increasing protein intake (A) may put additional strain on the kidneys. Reducing calcium intake (C) is not typically recommended as calcium is important for bone health. Increasing potassium intake (D) should be done cautiously as levels may already be elevated in chronic kidney disease.

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The correct answer is A: 'Refrain from eating 8 hours before the procedure.' This instruction is essential to ensure the client's stomach is empty, reducing the risk of aspiration during the endoscopy. Eating or drinking too close to the procedure can lead to complications. It is crucial to follow this specific timeframe to allow for proper digestion and emptying of the stomach contents. Option B is incorrect as avoiding liquids is not sufficient; the client needs to refrain from eating as well. Option C is also incorrect as 12 hours is too long of a fasting period and could lead to dehydration. Option D is unrelated to the preparation for an endoscopy procedure.

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The correct answer is A. Hypertension is actually a therapeutic effect of Sympathoplegics like Clonidine, as they work to lower blood pressure by inhibiting sympathetic activity. Therefore, hypertension would not be considered a side effect, but rather an intended outcome. Side effects of Clonidine can include dry oral cavity (option C), lethargic behavior (option D), and also gastrointestinal issues, dizziness, and constipation. Difficulty breathing (option B) is not a common side effect associated with Sympathoplegics like Clonidine. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when using this medication and to monitor for any adverse reactions.

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The correct answer is C: Limit phosphorus intake. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter out excess phosphorus from the blood, leading to high levels that can be harmful. Limiting phosphorus intake through dietary restrictions can help prevent complications such as bone and heart problems. Potassium restriction is also important in kidney disease, but the primary concern with dietary management is controlling phosphorus levels. Increasing protein intake and calcium intake may not be recommended as excessive protein can strain the kidneys further, and high calcium levels can contribute to mineral imbalances in kidney disease.

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Propafenone is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker because it has a moderate effect on the sodium channels, leading to a decrease in the rate of depolarization. This class of antiarrhythmic drugs also prolongs the action potential duration and refractory period of cardiac cells. Disopyramide is a class IA drug as well, but it does not fall under the sodium channel blockers. Amiodarone belongs to class III antiarrhythmics, which primarily affect potassium channels. Quinidine is a class IA drug that also blocks potassium channels. Therefore, the correct answer is A, Propafenone, as it specifically targets sodium channels in its mechanism of action.

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The Mantoux test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is commonly used for diagnosing tuberculosis. This test involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin protein derivative under the skin and assessing the reaction after 48-72 hours. A positive reaction indicates exposure to the tuberculosis bacteria. X-rays can show signs of tuberculosis in the lungs, but they are not used for definitive diagnosis. Sputum culture is used to confirm the presence of the bacteria in the sputum. Skin biopsy is not a common diagnostic test for tuberculosis. Therefore, the Mantoux test is the most appropriate choice for diagnosing tuberculosis in this scenario.

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The correct answer is D. Clients on anticoagulant therapy, such as warfarin, should avoid using sharp objects to minimize the risk of injury and bleeding. While green leafy vegetables contain vitamin K, which can affect the effectiveness of anticoagulants, it is not necessary to completely avoid them. Grapefruit juice does not interact significantly with anticoagulant therapy. However, vitamin K supplements should be avoided as they can interfere with the medication's ability to prevent blood clotting. Therefore, the most critical precaution for clients on anticoagulant therapy is to avoid using sharp objects to prevent bleeding complications.

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The correct answer is A, 'Weight gain.' Prednisone is a corticosteroid medication that can lead to fluid retention and increased appetite, both of which can contribute to weight gain. While increased appetite (option B) can indirectly lead to weight gain, it is not as specific a side effect as weight gain itself. Hair loss (option C) and dry mouth (option D) are not common side effects associated with prednisone use. Weight gain is a common concern with long-term prednisone therapy, so it is important for the nurse to educate the client about monitoring their weight and discussing any significant changes with their healthcare provider.

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The correct answer is B: "Sedatives to reduce anxiety." Preoperative sedatives are commonly given to patients to help reduce anxiety and promote relaxation before surgery. This can help the patient feel more comfortable and calm during the procedure, which can lead to better outcomes. While antibiotics may be administered closer to the time of surgery to prevent infection, pain management medications are usually given postoperatively, and anticoagulants may be given after surgery to prevent blood clots. Therefore, in this case, the priority is to provide a medication that will help the patient relax before the surgical procedure.

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The correct answer is B: 'Client has signed an informed consent.' Before any invasive procedure like a cardiac catheterization, it is crucial for the client to provide informed consent after being informed of the risks, benefits, and alternatives. This ensures that the client understands the procedure and gives permission for it to be performed. While being NPO for a certain period before the procedure, giving a sedative, and verifying blood type are important steps in preparing for a cardiac catheterization, obtaining informed consent is the most critical step to ensure the client's autonomy and understanding of the procedure.