You choose the safer drug action, the vital sign to check, and the teaching that belongs at the bedside. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five pharmacology questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A nurse is evaluating a client\'s understanding of digoxin therapy. What should the client monitor?
A. Pulse rate
B. Blood pressure
C. Blood glucose levels
D. Respiratory rate
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Pulse rate
The correct answer is A: Pulse rate. Monitoring the pulse rate is essential when taking digoxin because it is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions by regulating the heart's contractions. Digoxin can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate) or other cardiac arrhythmias as side effects. Therefore, monitoring the pulse rate regularly can help detect any abnormalities and prevent potential complications. Monitoring blood pressure (option B) is important in general health care but is not specifically related to digoxin therapy. Blood glucose levels (option C) are typically monitored in clients with diabetes and are not directly related to digoxin therapy. Respiratory rate (option D) is more relevant for respiratory conditions and not typically associated with digoxin therapy. Therefore, the client should focus on monitoring their pulse rate to assess the effectiveness and safety of digoxin therapy.
Question 2
A nurse is administering blood to a client who had a severe hemorrhage. What should the nurse monitor?
A. Monitor for allergic reactions.
B. Monitor for hypertension.
C. Monitor for infection signs.
D. Monitor for anaphylactic shock.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Monitor for allergic reactions.
The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for allergic reactions.' When administering blood to a client who had a severe hemorrhage, the nurse should closely monitor for any signs of an allergic reaction. Allergic reactions to blood transfusions can range from mild itching and hives to severe anaphylactic shock, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring for allergic reactions is crucial to ensure the safety and well-being of the client receiving the blood transfusion. Monitoring for hypertension (choice B) may be important in other situations but is not directly related to the administration of blood. Monitoring for infection signs (choice C) is also important but is not the primary concern when administering blood. Anaphylactic shock (choice D) is a severe allergic reaction that the nurse should monitor for, but the initial focus should be on detecting any signs of allergic reactions.
Question 3
A nurse administers a dose of metformin to a client instead of the prescribed dose of metoclopramide. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Inform the healthcare provider immediately.
B. Administer the correct drug as prescribed.
C. Monitor the client for adverse effects.
D. Write an incident report.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Inform the healthcare provider immediately.
The correct answer is A: 'Inform the healthcare provider immediately.' This is the most critical step to take in this situation as the nurse needs to notify the healthcare provider about the medication error promptly. The healthcare provider can then assess the situation, provide guidance on any necessary interventions or monitoring, and possibly adjust the client's treatment plan as needed. Administering the correct drug (option B) is not appropriate until the healthcare provider has been notified and provided instructions. Monitoring the client for adverse effects (option C) is important but should come after informing the healthcare provider. Writing an incident report (option D) is also necessary but should not be the first action taken in this scenario. Communication with the healthcare provider takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What therapy is often used?
A. Oxygen therapy
B. Inhaled corticosteroids
C. Bronchodilators
D. Antibiotic therapy
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Oxygen therapy
The correct answer is A: Oxygen therapy. Oxygen therapy is often used in the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) to help maintain adequate levels of oxygen in the blood. This therapy can improve oxygenation, reduce the work of breathing, and alleviate symptoms such as shortness of breath. Inhaled corticosteroids (option B) are commonly used in the treatment of COPD exacerbations to reduce inflammation, but they are not typically used as a primary form of therapy. Bronchodilators (option C) are a mainstay in COPD treatment as they help relax the airway muscles and improve airflow. Antibiotic therapy (option D) may be prescribed in COPD exacerbations if there is evidence of bacterial infection, but it is not a routine therapy for all COPD patients. Therefore, the most appropriate therapy often used in COPD management is oxygen therapy.
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a client with end-stage liver disease. What medication should be avoided?
A. Acetaminophen due to potential liver toxicity.
B. NSAIDs due to gastrointestinal bleeding risk.
C. Diuretics due to fluid imbalance.
D. Opioids due to potential for dependence.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Acetaminophen due to potential liver toxicity.
The correct answer is A: "Acetaminophen due to potential liver toxicity." End-stage liver disease can impair the liver's ability to metabolize medications, leading to an increased risk of liver toxicity. Acetaminophen is metabolized by the liver, and in the setting of liver disease, even therapeutic doses can potentially cause harm. It is crucial to avoid medications that can further stress the liver in clients with end-stage liver disease to prevent worsening of their condition. NSAIDs (option B) are generally avoided in liver disease due to the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, diuretics (option C) may be used cautiously to manage fluid imbalance, and opioids (option D) can be used for pain management in these clients with close monitoring for side effects. However, acetaminophen should be strictly avoided due to its potential for liver toxicity.
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Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking acetazolamide for chronic open-angle glaucoma. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor and report?
A. Monitor for decreased appetite.
B. Watch for signs of hypokalemia.
C. Look for any visual disturbances.
D. Assess for tinnitus.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for decreased appetite.' Acetazolamide is a diuretic commonly used to treat glaucoma by reducing intraocular pressure. One of the common side effects of acetazolamide is a loss of appetite, which can lead to weight loss and nutritional deficiencies if not addressed. It is important for the nurse to instruct the client to monitor for decreased appetite and report any significant changes to their healthcare provider. While hypokalemia (B) and tinnitus (D) are potential side effects of acetazolamide, they are less common compared to decreased appetite. Visual disturbances (C) are not typically associated with acetazolamide use for glaucoma. Therefore, the most important adverse effect to monitor and report would be decreased appetite to ensure the client's overall well-being and nutritional status are maintained.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. What is a critical assessment to perform?
A. Monitor for hair loss
B. Check for bleeding
C. Monitor for jaundice
D. Check for signs of infection
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: 'Check for bleeding.' Monitoring for bleeding is a critical assessment when caring for a client receiving chemotherapy because chemotherapy drugs can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased production of blood cells. This can result in thrombocytopenia, a condition where the blood has a lower than normal number of platelets, which are essential for blood clotting. Therefore, checking for signs of bleeding such as petechiae, bruising, or abnormal bleeding is crucial to prevent complications and provide timely interventions. While hair loss, jaundice, and signs of infection are also important considerations in caring for a client receiving chemotherapy, checking for bleeding takes precedence due to the potential life-threatening implications of untreated bleeding in this population.
A nurse is providing education about wound care to a client with a pressure ulcer. What should be emphasized?
A. Keep the area dry and clean.
B. Use antibiotic ointment as prescribed.
C. Change dressings regularly.
D. Apply moisturizer to the area.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: 'Change dressings regularly.' This is important in wound care as it helps prevent infection, promotes healing, and maintains a clean environment for the wound. Regular dressing changes also allow for assessment of the wound's progress and ensure proper moisture balance. Keeping the area dry and clean (option A) is crucial, but changing dressings is essential for overall wound care. Using antibiotic ointment as prescribed (option B) should be done under healthcare provider guidance to avoid resistance and unnecessary exposure. Applying moisturizer (option D) may not be appropriate for pressure ulcers as it can trap moisture and hinder healing. Therefore, emphasizing the importance of changing dressings regularly is key for effective wound care in clients with pressure ulcers.
A nurse is teaching a client about proper nutrition. What should be included for a balanced diet?
A. High protein intake
B. Low carb intake
C. Variety of fruits and vegetables
D. Increase in dietary fats
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: 'Variety of fruits and vegetables.' A balanced diet should include a diverse range of fruits and vegetables to ensure the intake of essential vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants. Fruits and vegetables are rich in fiber, which aids in digestion and helps maintain a healthy weight. They also provide important nutrients that support overall health and well-being. High protein intake (option A) is important but should be balanced with other food groups. Low carb intake (option B) may not provide the necessary energy for daily activities. Increasing dietary fats (option D) should be done in moderation and with a focus on healthy fats like those found in nuts, seeds, and avocados. Therefore, the best choice for a balanced diet is a variety of fruits and vegetables.
A nurse is instructing a client on the application of nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. Apply once daily in the morning.
B. Remove the patch before showering.
C. Rotate application sites to prevent skin irritation.
D. Place the patch on the same spot each day.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: 'Rotate application sites to prevent skin irritation.' This is the best choice because rotating the application sites helps prevent skin irritation and potential skin reactions due to prolonged exposure in the same area. Applying the patch to the same spot each day can lead to skin irritation or reduced effectiveness of the medication. Removing the patch before showering can disrupt the medication delivery. Applying once daily in the morning may not be the most appropriate timing for nitroglycerin patches, as they are often prescribed to be worn for a specific number of hours. Therefore, the client understanding the importance of rotating application sites to prevent skin irritation demonstrates a good grasp of the teaching and proper use of the medication.
A client diagnosed with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is stabilized and prepared for discharge. When preparing the client for discharge and home management, which of the following statements indicates that the client understands her condition and how to control it?
A. “I can avoid getting sick by not becoming dehydrated and by paying attention to my need to urinate, drink, or eat more than usual.”
B. “If I experience trembling, weakness, and headache, I should drink a glass of soda that contains sugar.”
C. “I will have to monitor my blood glucose level closely and notify the physician if it’s constantly elevated.”
D. “If I begin to feel especially hungry and thirsty, I’ll eat a snack high in carbohydrates.”
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because it demonstrates an understanding of the key factors in managing hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), which include avoiding dehydration and being aware of changes in urination, thirst, and hunger. This statement shows awareness of the importance of maintaining hydration and recognizing early signs of worsening symptoms.
Choice B is incorrect as consuming sugary soda can exacerbate the condition by further increasing blood sugar levels. Choice C is incorrect because while monitoring blood glucose levels is important, it is not the primary method of preventing HHNS. Choice D is incorrect because consuming high-carbohydrate snacks can contribute to elevated blood glucose levels, which is counterproductive in managing HHNS.
Which of the following medications is used to treat depression by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine?
A. Sertraline
B. Amitriptyline
C. Citalopram
D. Venlafaxine
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Venlafaxine. Venlafaxine is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), which works by blocking the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, thereby increasing the levels of these neurotransmitters. This helps alleviate symptoms of depression.
Rationale:
1. Sertraline (A) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), primarily targeting serotonin.
2. Amitriptyline (B) is a tricyclic antidepressant that primarily acts on norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake, but it is not as selective as Venlafaxine.
3. Citalopram (C) is an SSRI that primarily targets serotonin reuptake, not norepinephrine.
In summary, Venlafaxine is the correct choice as it specifically inhibits both serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake
Which of the following is an important consideration when taking glyburide or glipizide?
A. NSAIDs reduce effect
B. Statins reduce effects
C. Beta blockers reduce effects
D. ACE inhibitors reduce effects
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Beta blockers reduce effects. Beta blockers can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia caused by glyburide or glipizide, leading to delayed recognition and treatment. This interaction is important for patients with diabetes as it can increase the risk of severe hypoglycemia.
A: NSAIDs do not have a significant impact on the effectiveness of glyburide or glipizide.
B: Statins do not interfere with the action of these medications.
D: ACE inhibitors do not reduce the effects of glyburide or glipizide.
In summary, beta blockers are a crucial consideration when taking glyburide or glipizide due to their potential to mask hypoglycemic symptoms, while NSAIDs, statins, and ACE inhibitors do not significantly affect the effectiveness of these medications.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes flushing of the client's neck and chest. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Stop the infusion
B. Document the findings as a harmless reaction
C. Slow the infusion rate
D. Administer diphenhydramine
Correct answer:
The correct action for the nurse to take when a client receiving IV vancomycin shows flushing of the neck and chest is to slow the infusion rate. Flushing is a common sign of Red Man Syndrome, which is associated with rapid infusions of vancomycin. Slowing down the infusion rate can help prevent further flushing and the development of Red Man Syndrome. Stopping the infusion (Choice A) may be too drastic if the symptoms are mild and can be managed by slowing the rate. Documenting the findings as a harmless reaction (Choice B) is incorrect because flushing should be addressed promptly to prevent complications. Administering diphenhydramine (Choice D) is not the initial or best intervention for flushing associated with vancomycin; slowing the infusion rate is the priority.
The nurse understands the differences between drug excretion in children and that in adults. With this knowledge, what does the nurse consider when administering drugs to children?
A. Most children need a higher dose of drug, so the nurse will contact
B. Children excrete drugs rapidly, so the nurse must assess carefully for therapeutic effects of the drug.
C. The most important assessment is to evaluate for drug accumulation, because the excretion of drugs is slower in children.
D. Excretion of most drugs is the same in children as in adults, but assessments are important to avoid side effects.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because children have slower drug excretion compared to adults due to immature renal and hepatic functions. This makes them more vulnerable to drug accumulation and potential toxicity. Therefore, the nurse must prioritize assessing for drug accumulation when administering drugs to children.
Choice A is incorrect because not all children need a higher dose of a drug, as dosages are based on weight and age-specific factors. Choice B is incorrect because children may not always excrete drugs rapidly, and the focus should be on potential drug accumulation. Choice D is incorrect because children do not always excrete drugs at the same rate as adults, and assessments are crucial not just to avoid side effects, but also to prevent drug accumulation.
RN exams pharmacology practice questions, set 18 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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