You choose the safer drug action, the vital sign to check, and the teaching that belongs at the bedside. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five pharmacology questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
All of the following statements concerning the bile acid-binding resins are true, EXCEPT:
A. They decrease total cholesterol and LDL
B. They are contraindicated in patients with hypertriglyceridemia
C. When used alone, they do not slow the progression of atherosclerotic lesions
D. They are the drugs of choice for therapy of type II hyperlipidemia when used either alone or in combination with selected agents
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — When used alone, they do not slow the progression of atherosclerotic lesions
The correct answer is C because bile acid-binding resins, such as cholestyramine, can actually slow the progression of atherosclerotic lesions when used alone. These resins work by binding bile acids in the intestine, leading to increased bile acid excretion, which in turn results in increased LDL receptor expression on hepatocytes. This promotes the clearance of LDL from the bloodstream, thus reducing total cholesterol and LDL levels (Choice A). Bile acid-binding resins are not contraindicated in hypertriglyceridemia; in fact, they can be beneficial in reducing triglyceride levels. Lastly, while they are effective in type II hyperlipidemia, they are not always the first-line agents of choice and are often used in combination with other lipid-lowering drugs (Choice D).
Question 2
A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. I should report a dry cough to my doctor.'
B. I need to rise slowly to avoid dizziness.'
C. I can stop this medication if I feel better.'
D. I should avoid salt substitutes with potassium.'
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — I can stop this medication if I feel better.'
Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, manages hypertension but requires adherence even if symptoms improve, as stopping abruptly risks rebound hypertension, indicating a teaching gap. Reporting a dry cough is correct due to bradykinin buildup, a common side effect needing evaluation. Rising slowly prevents orthostatic hypotension, a known effect. Avoiding potassium-rich salt substitutes prevents hyperkalemia, as lisinopril inhibits aldosterone. The statement ‘I can stop this medication if I feel better' reflects misunderstanding of chronic disease management, where consistent therapy maintains control, not just symptom relief. Further teaching must emphasize this, aligning with lisinopril's role in long-term vascular protection, making C the statement needing correction.
Question 3
Tolerance and drug resistance can be a consequence of:
A. Change in receptors, loss of them or exhaustion of mediators
B. Increased receptor sensitivity
C. Decreased metabolic degradation
D. Decreased renal tubular secretion
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Change in receptors, loss of them or exhaustion of mediators
The correct answer is A: Change in receptors, loss of them or exhaustion of mediators. Tolerance and drug resistance often occur due to changes in receptors, such as downregulation or desensitization, leading to decreased drug efficacy. Loss of receptors or exhaustion of mediators can also contribute to reduced drug response over time.
Explanation of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Increased receptor sensitivity would not lead to tolerance or drug resistance, as it would result in enhanced drug effects.
C: Decreased metabolic degradation would increase drug levels in the body, potentially leading to increased drug effects rather than tolerance.
D: Decreased renal tubular secretion may alter drug excretion but would not directly cause tolerance or drug resistance.
Question 4
All of the following statements concerning the bile acid-binding resins are true, EXCEPT:
A. They decrease total cholesterol and LDL
B. They are contraindicated in patients with hypertriglyceridemia
C. When used alone, they do not slow the progression of atherosclerotic lesions
D. They are the drugs of choice for therapy of type II hyperlipidemia when used either alone or in combination with selected agents
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — When used alone, they do not slow the progression of atherosclerotic lesions
The correct answer is C because bile acid-binding resins, such as cholestyramine, can actually slow the progression of atherosclerotic lesions when used alone. These resins work by binding bile acids in the intestine, leading to increased bile acid excretion, which in turn results in increased LDL receptor expression on hepatocytes. This promotes the clearance of LDL from the bloodstream, thus reducing total cholesterol and LDL levels (Choice A). Bile acid-binding resins are not contraindicated in hypertriglyceridemia; in fact, they can be beneficial in reducing triglyceride levels. Lastly, while they are effective in type II hyperlipidemia, they are not always the first-line agents of choice and are often used in combination with other lipid-lowering drugs (Choice D).
Question 5
A client with diabetes mellitus must learn how to self-administer insulin. The physician has prescribed 10 U of U- 100 regular insulin and 35 U of 100-U isophane insulin suspension (NPH) to be taken before breakfast. When teaching the client how to select and rotate insulin injection sites, the nurse should provide which instruction?
A. “Inject insulin into healthy tissue with large blood vessels and nerves.”
B. “Rotate injection sites within the same anatomic region, not among different regions.”
C. “Administer insulin into areas of scar tissue or hypotrophy whenever possible.”
D. “Administer insulin into sites above muscles that you plan to exercise heavily later that day.”
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — “Rotate injection sites within the same anatomic region, not among different regions.”
The correct answer is B: “Rotate injection sites within the same anatomic region, not among different regions.” This instruction is important to prevent lipodystrophy and ensure consistent insulin absorption. Rotating sites within the same region helps maintain consistent insulin absorption rates and reduces the risk of developing scar tissue or fatty deposits. Injecting into healthy tissue with large blood vessels and nerves (choice A) can lead to inconsistent absorption. Administering insulin into areas of scar tissue or hypotrophy (choice C) can also disrupt absorption. Injecting into sites above muscles planned for exercise (choice D) can lead to unpredictable insulin absorption. Rotation within the same region optimizes insulin delivery and prevents complications.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
A patient has been diagnosed has having 'long QT syndrome.' The patient is experiencing significant pain following a bout with shingles. What would be an appropriate drug for his pain?
A. Amitriptyline
B. Fentanyl
C. Acyclovir
D. Gabapentin
Correct answer:
Long QT syndrome predisposes patients to torsades de pointes, so pain management must avoid QT-prolonging drugs. Amitriptyline, a TCA, extends QT via sodium channel blockade, risking arrhythmias. Fentanyl, an opioid, has minimal QT impact and relieves severe pain but carries respiratory depression risks, less ideal for shingles' neuropathic pain. Acyclovir treats shingles' viral cause, not pain directly. Diazepam addresses anxiety, not pain. Gabapentin, an anticonvulsant, targets neuropathic pain (common in postherpetic neuralgia) by modulating calcium channels, with no significant QT prolongation, making it safe and effective here. Its efficacy in nerve pain, lack of cardiac risk, and suitability for chronic management post-shingles distinguish it as the best option.
The nurse understands the differences between drug excretion in children and that in adults. With this knowledge, what does the nurse consider when administering drugs to children?
A. Most children need a higher dose of drug, so the nurse will contact
B. Children excrete drugs rapidly, so the nurse must assess carefully for therapeutic effects of the drug.
C. The most important assessment is to evaluate for drug accumulation, because the excretion of drugs is slower in children.
D. Excretion of most drugs is the same in children as in adults, but assessments are important to avoid side effects.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because children have slower drug excretion compared to adults due to immature renal and hepatic functions. This makes them more vulnerable to drug accumulation and potential toxicity. Therefore, the nurse must prioritize assessing for drug accumulation when administering drugs to children.
Choice A is incorrect because not all children need a higher dose of a drug, as dosages are based on weight and age-specific factors. Choice B is incorrect because children may not always excrete drugs rapidly, and the focus should be on potential drug accumulation. Choice D is incorrect because children do not always excrete drugs at the same rate as adults, and assessments are crucial not just to avoid side effects, but also to prevent drug accumulation.
Patients with Alzheimer's disease, which factors are associated with the pathophysiology of this disease? Select all that apply.
A. Neuronal degeneration and decreased acetylcholine
B. Autoimmune changes in the myelin sheath
C. Beta-amyloid and neuritic plaques
D. Neurofibrillary tangles and tau
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because neuronal degeneration and decreased acetylcholine are key factors associated with the pathophysiology of Alzheimer's disease. Neuronal degeneration leads to cognitive decline, while decreased acetylcholine contributes to memory impairment.
Incorrect Responses:
B: Autoimmune changes in the myelin sheath are not typically associated with Alzheimer's disease, as it primarily involves neuronal degeneration.
C: Beta-amyloid and neuritic plaques are characteristic pathological features of Alzheimer's disease, but they are not directly associated with the underlying pathophysiology.
D: Neurofibrillary tangles and tau are also pathological hallmarks of Alzheimer's disease, but they are not the primary factors driving the disease process.
In an individual with Sjogren’s syndrome, nursing care should focus on:
A. Moisture replacement
B. Nutritional supplementation
C. Electrolyte balance
D. Arrhythmia management
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Moisture replacement. Sjogren's syndrome is an autoimmune disorder that primarily affects the moisture-producing glands, leading to dryness in the eyes, mouth, and other mucous membranes. Nursing care should focus on managing these symptoms by providing moisture replacement through artificial tears, lubricating eye drops, and hydrating mouthwashes. This helps prevent complications such as corneal damage and dental issues. Nutritional supplementation (B) may be needed if there are difficulties in eating due to dry mouth, but it is not the primary focus. Electrolyte balance (C) and arrhythmia management (D) are not directly related to the symptoms of Sjogren's syndrome and are therefore not the main priorities in nursing care for this condition.
An agonist activates a receptor and stimulates a response. When given frequently over time the body may:
A. Up-regulate the total number of receptors
B. Block the receptor with a partial agonist
C. Alter the drug’s metabolism
D. Down-regulate the numbers of that specific receptor
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Down-regulate the numbers of that specific receptor.
Step 1: When an agonist continuously activates a receptor, the body may reduce the number of receptors to maintain homeostasis.
Step 2: Down-regulation is a feedback mechanism to decrease receptor sensitivity due to excessive stimulation.
Step 3: This helps prevent overstimulation and desensitization of the receptor.
Summary:
A: Up-regulating the total number of receptors is unlikely as the body typically down-regulates in response to prolonged agonist exposure.
B: Blocking the receptor with a partial agonist is not a typical response to repeated agonist exposure.
C: Altering the drug's metabolism is not directly related to receptor down-regulation in response to agonist stimulation.
The primary function of luteinizing hormone (LH) in men is to
A. regulate sperm production
B. regulate secondary sex characteristics
C. regulate growth of male sex organs
D. regulate testosterone
Correct answer:
Luteinizing hormone (LH), from the pituitary, stimulates Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone, the primary male sex hormone, making its regulation LH's chief role in men. Sperm production is driven by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), not LH, though both support fertility. Secondary sex characteristics, like body hair, depend on testosterone, which LH indirectly influences by controlling its synthesis, not directly regulating the traits. Growth of male sex organs relies on androgens, again tied to testosterone, not LH's direct action. Testosterone regulation is LH's specific function, as it triggers the steroidogenesis pathway, critical for male physiology, distinguishing it from FSH's gamete focus and underscoring its hormonal primacy in this context.
A patient has heart failure, and a high dose of furosemide is ordered. What suggests a favorable response to furosemide?
A. A decrease in level of consciousness occurs, and the patient sleeps more.
B. Respiratory rate decreases from 28/min to 20/min, and the depth increases.
C. Breath sounds reveal increased congestion and the patient complains of shortness of breath.
D. Urine output is 50 mL/4 hours, and intake is 200 milliliters.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because in heart failure, furosemide helps with fluid removal through diuresis, leading to decreased fluid overload. A decrease in respiratory rate from 28/min to 20/min and increased depth suggests improved lung function due to reduced fluid accumulation in the lungs. This indicates a favorable response to furosemide therapy.
Choice A is incorrect because a decrease in level of consciousness and increased sleepiness is not a favorable response to furosemide.
Choice C is incorrect because increased congestion in breath sounds and complaints of shortness of breath indicate worsening symptoms, not an improvement.
Choice D is incorrect because a urine output of 50 mL/4 hours is low and indicates inadequate response to diuretic therapy.
A patient™s blood pressure elevates to 270/150 mm Hg, and a hypertensive emergency is obvious.
A. drip to
B. With this medication, the nurse knows that the maximum dose of this drug should be infused for how long?
C. 10 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Correct answer:
In a patient with a hypertensive emergency, rapid and effective blood pressure reduction is crucial to prevent organ damage. The recommendation for IV administration of antihypertensive medications in this scenario is to titrate the medication to achieve a safe reduction in blood pressure, generally targeting a decrease in mean arterial pressure by no more than 25% within the first hour. The specific medication and infusion rate are dependent on the patient's clinical status and individual factors. Therefore, the maximum dose and duration of infusion must be tailored to the patient's response, with close monitoring by healthcare providers. Hence, determining a fixed time for the maximum dose of the drug to be infused is not appropriate in this critical care scenario.
On the third day after a partial thyroidectomy, a client exhibits muscle twitching and hyperirritability of the nervous system. When questioned, the client reports numbness and tingling of the mouth and fingertips. Suspecting a life- threatening electrolyte disturbance, the nurse notifies the surgeon immediately. Which electrolyte disturbance most commonly follows thyroid surgery?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct answer:
Rationale:
1. Following thyroid surgery, there is a risk of damaging the parathyroid glands, leading to hypocalcemia.
2. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include muscle twitching, hyperirritability, numbness, and tingling.
3. These symptoms align with the client's presentation, indicating a probable electrolyte imbalance.
4. Hypocalcemia is a common complication post-thyroidectomy due to parathyroid gland damage.
5. Prompt recognition and treatment of hypocalcemia are essential to prevent severe complications.
Summary:
B: Hyperkalemia - Not typically associated with thyroid surgery, symptoms differ.
C: Hyponatremia - Unlikely post-thyroidectomy, symptoms don't match presentation.
D: Hypermagnesemia - Rare post-thyroidectomy, symptoms and electrolyte disturbance don't align.
The nurse is monitoring a post-renal transplantation client taking cyclosporine (Neoral). The nurse observes an elevation in one of the client's vital signs and the client is complaining of sweating and
A. Which of the following vital signs is most likely increased?
B. Respiratory rate
C. Pulse rate
D. Temperature
Correct answer:
Cyclosporine, a common immunosuppressive medication used in post-renal transplantation clients, can cause a range of adverse effects, including hypertension, nephrotoxicity, and electrolyte imbalances. One of the significant side effects of cyclosporine is causing an elevation in the pulse rate, also known as tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common side effect of cyclosporine due to its direct effects on the cardiovascular system. Therefore, in the context of a post-renal transplantation client taking cyclosporine, an elevation in pulse rate is the most likely vital sign to be increased. Sweatiness may be a response to the increased heart rate and may also be a side effect of cyclosporine. However, the primary vital sign affected by cyclosporine would be the pulse rate.
RN exams pharmacology practice questions, set 19 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
