You match developmental age, safety, and family teaching instead of treating the child as a small adult. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five pediatrics questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The nurse is taking care of a 7-year-old child with herpes simplex virus (type 1 or 2). Which prescribed medication should the nurse expect to be included in the treatment plan?
A. Corticosteroids
B. Oral griseofulvin
C. Oral antiviral agent
D. Topical and/or systemic antibiotic
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Oral antiviral agent
For the treatment of herpes simplex virus (type 1 or 2) in a 7-year-old child, the nurse should expect the prescribed medication to include an oral antiviral agent. Antiviral medications such as acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir are commonly used to manage herpes simplex virus infections. These medications help to reduce the severity and duration of symptoms, promote healing of lesions, and prevent future outbreaks. Corticosteroids are not typically used in the treatment of herpes simplex virus infections. Oral griseofulvin is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal infections, not viral infections like herpes simplex virus. Topical and/or systemic antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are not effective against viruses like herpes simplex.
Question 2
A 48-year-old patient has been prescribed trihexyphenidyl for her Parkinson's disease. Which adverse reaction to this drug can be close-related?
A. Excessive salivation
B. Bradycardia
C. Dryness of mouth
D. Constipation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Dryness of mouth
Trihexyphenidyl is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat symptoms of Parkinson's disease. Anticholinergic drugs work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter in the nervous system. One common side effect of anticholinergic medications like trihexyphenidyl is dryness of the mouth (xerostomia). This occurs because the drug interferes with the normal functioning of the salivary glands, leading to reduced saliva production. Excessive salivation (choice A) is unlikely due to the drying effect of the medication. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with trihexyphenidyl use. Constipation (choice D) is another common adverse effect of anticholinergic medications, but dryness of the mouth is more closely related in this scenario.
Question 3
A very popular means of early detection of breast cancer is:
A. X-ray
B. Both A and B
C. Surgical
D. Breast self examination
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Breast self examination
Breast self-examination (BSE) is a very popular means of early detection of breast cancer as it involves women being aware of how their breasts look and feel to detect any changes such as lumps, swelling, or other abnormalities. By performing regular self-examinations, women can identify any potential issues early on and seek medical advice promptly. While mammograms (X-ray) and clinical breast exams by healthcare providers are also important screening methods for detecting breast cancer, BSE is particularly valuable as women can perform it on a regular basis at home, thus increasing the chances of identifying any concerning changes promptly. It is recommended that women perform BSE monthly to become familiar with their breast tissue and notice any changes over time.
Question 4
Which of the following is an intraoperative outcome for a patient undergoing an inguinal hernia repair?
A. Verbalizes fears
B. Demonstrates leg exercises
C. Maintains skin integrity
D. Explains deep breathing exercises
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Maintains skin integrity
Intraoperative outcomes refer to the immediate goals and conditions that are assessed during a surgical procedure. Maintaining skin integrity is a crucial intraoperative outcome for a patient undergoing an inguinal hernia repair surgery. This outcome focuses on ensuring that the patient's skin remains intact, without any damage or breakdown during the surgical procedure. It involves proper positioning of the patient, adequate support to vulnerable areas, and meticulous monitoring of the skin throughout the surgery to prevent any pressure injuries or skin trauma. Other outcomes listed, such as verbalizing fears, demonstrating leg exercises, and explaining breathing exercises, are more pertinent to preoperative or postoperative care rather than intraoperative outcomes.
Question 5
Which of the following medications can be used to quickly reduce SOB in a crisis situation for a patient with end-stage respiratory disease?
A. Oral cortisone
B. IV morphine
C. IM meperidine (Demerol)
D. IV propanolol (Inderal)
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — IV morphine
IV morphine is the most appropriate choice among the options provided for quickly reducing shortness of breath (SOB) in a crisis situation for a patient with end-stage respiratory disease. Morphine is commonly used in palliative care for symptom management in patients with severe respiratory distress. It acts as a respiratory depressant by reducing the perception of breathlessness, which can help alleviate the distressing symptoms of dyspnea. The rapid onset of action of IV morphine makes it an effective option for immediate relief in emergency situations for patients experiencing significant SOB due to end-stage respiratory disease. Oral cortisone, IM meperidine (Demerol), and IV propranolol (Inderal) are not primary choices for quickly reducing SOB in this context.
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Question 6
When reviewing developmental changes with the parents of a 6-month-old infant, what information should the practical nurse reinforce?
A. Encourage the infant to self-feed finger foods.
B. Teach the parents strategies to help the infant sit up.
C. Provide a developmentally safe environment for the infant.
D. Explain that an increased appetite typically occurs in the next 6 months.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because providing a developmentally safe environment for a 6-month-old infant is crucial as they begin to explore their surroundings more actively. This includes ensuring that the environment is free of hazards and that the infant is supervised to prevent accidents. Choice A is incorrect because self-feeding finger foods may not be developmentally appropriate for a 6-month-old infant. Choice B is incorrect as most infants are able to sit up with support around 6 months of age without the need for specific teaching strategies. Choice D is also incorrect as while appetite changes can occur, explaining a specific increase in appetite over the next 6 months is not a primary focus when discussing developmental changes with parents of a 6-month-old.
A patient is admitted with symptoms of a recent weight gain, 3+ pitting edema of his feet, distended neck veins, and crackles in his lungs. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for this patient's plan of care?
A. Deficient fluid volume
B. Imbalanced nutrition more than body requirements
C. Excess fluid volume
D. Noncompliance
Correct answer:
The patient's symptoms of recent weight gain, 3+ pitting edema of his feet, distended neck veins, and crackles in his lungs are indicative of fluid volume excess. These signs and symptoms suggest that the patient is retaining too much fluid, leading to the edema and congestion in the lungs. The nursing diagnosis of Excess Fluid Volume is appropriate for this patient as it reflects the patient's current physiological state and guides the plan of care to address excess fluid accumulation through interventions such as diuretic therapy, fluid restriction, and monitoring of intake and output. Deficient fluid volume, Imbalanced nutrition more than body requirements, and Noncompliance are not appropriate nursing diagnoses given the patient's presentation of fluid overload.
A client is receiving a blood transfusion. If this client experiences an acute hemolytic reaction, which nursing intervention is the most important?
A. Immediately stop the transfusion, infuse dextrose 5% in water (D5W), and call the physician.
B. Slow the transfusion and monitor the client closely.
C. Stop the transfusion, notify the blood bank, and administer antihistamines
D. Immediately stop the transfusion, infuse normal saline solution, notify the blood bank
Correct answer:
In the case of an acute hemolytic reaction during a blood transfusion, the most important nursing intervention is to immediately stop the transfusion and infuse normal saline solution. This is crucial to prevent further complications associated with the hemolysis of red blood cells. Normal saline helps maintain blood pressure and support kidney function, which may be compromised during a hemolytic reaction. Additionally, notifying the blood bank is important to investigate and prevent future reactions, and to determine if there was an error in blood compatibility. Administering antihistamines or changing the fluid type (such as dextrose 5% in water) will not address the underlying issue of hemolysis and may not be the most appropriate interventions in this scenario.
What should nursing interventions to maintain a patent airway in a newborn include?
A. Sleeping in the prone (on abdomen) position
B. Wrapping neonate as snugly as possible
C. Positioning neonate supine while sleeping
D. Using bulb syringe to suction as needed, suctioning nose first, and then pharynx
Correct answer:
Nursing interventions to maintain a patent airway in a newborn should prioritize safety and best practices. Positioning the neonate supine while sleeping is crucial to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) and ensure proper airway alignment. Using a bulb syringe to suction as needed, with the correct technique of suctioning the nose first and then the pharynx, helps effectively remove secretions and keep the airway clear. This intervention promotes optimal respiratory function and reduces the risk of airway obstruction in newborns. Sleeping in the prone position is not recommended due to the increased risk of SIDS. Wrapping the neonate as snugly as possible can also pose risks of overheating and compromising the airway, making it an unsafe practice.
Which of the ff. nursing diagnoses is the focus of care for a patient with hypertension?
A. Activity intolerance
B. Impaired physical mobility
C. Ineffective airway clearance
D. Deficient knowledge
Correct answer:
Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a condition where the force of blood against the artery walls is consistently too high. Education about the condition, its causes, treatment, lifestyle modifications, and potential complications is crucial in managing hypertension effectively. Patients with hypertension often need to make significant changes to their diet, exercise routine, and overall lifestyle to control their blood pressure. Therefore, addressing Deficient knowledge nursing diagnosis is essential in providing patient education and empowering the individual to take control of their health. Focusing on improving the patient's understanding of hypertension can lead to better adherence to treatment plans and ultimately better blood pressure control.
Which of the ff nursing interventions should a nurse perform when caring for a client with congestive heart failure who has decreased cardiac output?
A. Encourage activities that engage the Valsalva maneuver
B. Encourage the client to perform exercises
C. Assess apical heart before administering digitalis
D. Offer small frequent feedings
Correct answer:
Decreased cardiac output is a serious concern in clients with congestive heart failure. By assessing the apical heart rate before administering digitalis, the nurse can monitor the client's cardiac status and prevent possible complications such as digitalis toxicity. Digitalis is a medication commonly used to improve cardiac output in clients with heart failure, but it can also cause harm if given inappropriately, especially if the client's heart rate is already low. Monitoring the client's apical heart rate before giving digitalis helps ensure that the medication is safely administered and that the client's cardiac status is closely monitored. This intervention is crucial in the care of clients with congestive heart failure to optimize patient safety and outcomes.
When evaluating a client's response to fluid replacement therapy, the observation that indicates adequate tissue perfusion to vital organ is;
A. Urinary output of 30 ml in an hour
B. Central venous pressure reading of 2 cm H20
C. Pulse rates of 120 and 110 in a 15- minute period
D. Blood pressure readings of 50/30 and 70/40 mm Hg within 30 minutes
Correct answer:
The observation that indicates adequate tissue perfusion to vital organs is a urinary output of 30 ml in an hour. Adequate tissue perfusion is essential to ensure that vital organs receive enough blood and oxygen. Monitoring urinary output is a crucial indicator of perfusion status, as it reflects the perfusion of the kidneys. A urinary output of at least 30 ml/hour or more indicates that the kidneys are receiving sufficient blood flow and are able to produce urine, which helps in removing waste products from the body. In this case, a urinary output of 30 ml in an hour suggests adequate tissue perfusion to vital organs. The other options do not directly reflect tissue perfusion to vital organs and may indicate inadequate perfusion or compromised hemodynamic status.
Pneumocystic pneumonia. Which anemias are described as microcytic, hypochromic anemia?
A. Vitamin B12 and iron deficiency anemia
B. Folic acid and iron deficiency anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia and thalassemia
D. Sickle cell anemia and anemia if chronic disease
Correct answer:
Microcytic, hypochromic anemia is characterized by small red blood cells with decreased hemoglobin content. Iron deficiency anemia and thalassemia are the two main types of anemia that present with these characteristics. Iron deficiency anemia is caused by a lack of iron in the body, which is essential for the production of hemoglobin. Thalassemia is a genetic disorder that results in decreased production of normal hemoglobin. Both conditions lead to small, pale red blood cells, fitting the description of microcytic, hypochromic anemia. Other choices such as Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (choice A), folic acid deficiency anemia (choice B), sickle cell anemia (choice D), and anemia of chronic disease (choice D) typically present as normocytic or macrocytic anemias.
During a follow-up clinical visit, a mother tells the nurse that her 5-month-old son, who had surgical correction for tetralogy of Fallot, has rapid breathing, often takes a long time to eat, and requires frequent rest periods. The infant is not crying while being held, and his growth is in the expected range. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Stimulate the infant to cry to produce cyanosis
B. Auscultate the heart and lungs while holding the infant
C. Evaluate the infant for failure to thrive
D. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
Correct answer:
Auscultating the heart and lungs while the infant is held is the most appropriate intervention to assess his current condition. This action allows the nurse to gather important information regarding the cardiovascular and respiratory status of the infant, which is crucial in evaluating his post-surgical recovery and overall well-being. Option A is incorrect as stimulating the infant to cry intentionally is not necessary and could cause distress. Option C is incorrect as the infant's growth is within the expected range, indicating no signs of failure to thrive. Option D is incorrect as obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram is not the initial intervention needed in this situation; assessing the heart and lungs through auscultation is more immediate and informative.
What should the nurse suggest to the parents of an infant who has a prolonged need for middle-of-the-night feedings?
A. Decrease daytime feedings.
B. Allow child to go to sleep with a bottle.
C. Offer last feeding as late as possible at night.
D. Put infant to bed after asleep from rocking.
Correct answer:
The nurse should suggest to the parents to offer the last feeding as late as possible at night for an infant who has a prolonged need for middle-of-the-night feedings. By ensuring that the infant gets a full feeding closer to bedtime, it can potentially help the baby stay fuller for a longer period during the night, reducing the need for frequent nighttime feedings. This approach can help the parents establish a bedtime routine that supports longer stretches of sleep for both the infant and themselves. It is important to note that decreasing daytime feedings, allowing the child to go to sleep with a bottle, and putting the infant to bed after they are already asleep from rocking are not recommended strategies for addressing prolonged middle-of-the-night feedings.
RN exams pediatrics practice questions, set 5 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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