RN exams pediatrics practice questions, set 3

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RN exams pediatrics practice questions set 3

You match developmental age, safety, and family teaching instead of treating the child as a small adult. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five pediatrics questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

An infant experienced an apparent life-threatening event (ALTE) and is being placed on home apnea monitoring. Parents have understood the instructions for use of a home apnea monitor when they state?

  1. A. "We can adjust the monitor to eliminate false alarms."
  2. B. "We should sleep in the same bed as our monitored infant."
  3. C. "We will check the monitor several times a day to be sure the alarm is working."
  4. D. "We will place the monitor in the crib with our infant."
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — "We will check the monitor several times a day to be sure the alarm is working."

The correct statement indicating understanding of the instructions for use of a home apnea monitor is "We will check the monitor several times a day to be sure the alarm is working." This is important because regular monitoring of the device's functioning ensures that it is able to detect any potential apnea episodes or abnormalities in the infant's breathing patterns. Checking the monitor several times a day helps in maintaining the safety and effectiveness of the monitor in alerting the parents to any potential issues with the infant's breathing. The other options are incorrect: A is incorrect because adjusting the monitor to eliminate false alarms can compromise its accuracy, B is incorrect as the infant should sleep in a separate safe sleep environment to reduce the risk of SIDS, and D is incorrect as the monitor should be placed near the infant's crib but not directly in it for safety reasons.

Question 2

The skull tends to assume a square or boxlike shape in

  1. A. Kleinfelter syndrome
  2. B. neurofibromatosis
  3. C. storage disorder
  4. D. hydrocephalus
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — hydrocephalus

Hydrocephalus is a condition characterized by an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) within the brain, leading to increased intracranial pressure. This can cause the skull to expand and take on a square or boxlike shape, especially in infants whose cranial suturhave not yet fused. Kleinfelter syndrome is a genetic disorder involving an extra X chromosome in males, primarily affecting sexual development and not skull shape. Neurofibromatosis is a genetic condition causing tumors along nervbut donot typically alter skull shape in this manner. Storage disorders , such as lysosomal storage diseases, lead to accumulation of substancwithin cells but are not associated with a boxlike skull. Chronic subdural hemorrhagcould cause other cranial changes, but not this specific shape. Thus, hydrocephalus is the correct answer due to its direct impact on skull morphology through fluid pressure.

Question 3

Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention to prevent infection in patients with AIDS?

  1. A. Prohibiting patients who are severely immunodeficient from having any visitors.
  2. B. Prohibiting visitors with a cough.
  3. C. Wearing protective gear such as gown, mask, gloves, and goggles when entering the room.
  4. D. Ensuring protective barrier isolation precautions are in place.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Wearing protective gear such as gown, mask, gloves, and goggles when entering the room.

The correct nursing intervention to prevent infection in patients with AIDS is to wear protective gear such as gown, mask, gloves, and goggles when entering the patient's room. Patients with AIDS have compromised immune systems, making them more susceptible to infections. Wearing protective gear helps prevent the transmission of pathogens from healthcare providers to the patient and vice versa. It helps minimize the risk of exposure to infectious agents and protects both the patient and the healthcare team. Prohibiting visitors with a cough (option B) may be important for preventing the spread of certain infections, but it is not the most effective measure for protecting patients with AIDS. Option A is not appropriate as it isolates the patient, which can have negative psychological effects. Option D is not specific enough and does not provide clear guidance on infection prevention measures.

Question 4

Mrs. Go is suspected of experiencing respiratory distress from a left-sided pneumothorax. She should be positioned:

  1. A. in a semi-fowler's position
  2. B. trendelenburg position
  3. C. prone position
  4. D. on the right side
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — in a semi-fowler's position

Mrs. Go, who is suspected of experiencing respiratory distress from a left-sided pneumothorax, should be positioned in a semi-fowler's position. This position involves elevating the head of the bed to approximately 30 to 45 degrees. Placing the patient in a semi-fowler's position helps improve lung expansion, facilitates breathing, and promotes optimal oxygenation. It can also help prevent the collapse of the affected lung and assist in reducing the symptoms associated with pneumothorax. Trendelenburg position (B) and prone position (C) are not recommended for pneumothorax as they can worsen the condition by putting additional pressure on the affected lung. Placing the patient on the right side (D) would not specifically address the respiratory distress caused by a left-sided pneumothorax. Therefore, the most appropriate position for Mrs. Go in this situation is the semi-fowler's position.

Question 5

Which statement regarding chlamydia infection is correct?

  1. A. Treatment of choice is oral penicillin.
  2. B. Treatment of choice is nystatin or miconazole.
  3. C. Clinical manifestations include dysuria and urethral itching in males.
  4. D. Clinical manifestations include small, painful vesicles on genital areas.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Clinical manifestations include dysuria and urethral itching in males.

The correct statement regarding chlamydia infection is that the clinical manifestations include dysuria and urethral itching in males. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. In males, common symptoms include a burning sensation during urination (dysuria) and urethral itching. It is important to note that chlamydia is often asymptomatic, especially in women, which is why regular screening is important to detect and treat the infection early. Option A is incorrect because the treatment of choice for chlamydia is typically antibiotics such as azithromycin or doxycycline, not oral penicillin. Option B is incorrect because nystatin or miconazole are used to treat fungal infections, not chlamydia. Option D is incorrect because small, painful vesicles on genital areas are more indicative of herpes simplex virus infection rather than chlamydia

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Question 6

The nurse is assisting the family of a child with a history of encopresis. Which should be included in the nurse's discussion with this family?

  1. A. Instruct the parents to sit the child on the toilet at twice-daily routine intervals.
  2. B. Instruct the parents that the child will probably need to have daily enemas.
  3. C. Suggest the use of stimulant cathartics weekly.
  4. D. Reassure the family that most problems are resolved successfully, with some relapses during periods of stress.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 7

The nurse is assisting the family of a child with a history of encopresis. Which should be included in the nurse's discussion with this family?

  1. A. Instruct the parents to sit the child on the toilet at twice-daily routine intervals.
  2. B. Instruct the parents that the child will probably need to have daily enemas.
  3. C. Suggest the use of stimulant cathartics weekly.
  4. D. Reassure the family that most problems are resolved successfully, with some relapses during periods of stress.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 8

A male client who is HIV positive is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. His live-in partner has accompanied him. During the history interview, the nurse is aware of feeling a negative attitude about the client's lifestyle, what action is most appropriate?

  1. A. Share these feelings with the client
  2. B. Discuss the negative feelings with the
  3. C. Develop a written interview form charge nurse
  4. D. Avoid eye contact with the client
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Question 9

The outer layer of connective tissue that surrounds the nerve is called:

  1. A. Epineurium
  2. B. Epithelium
  3. C. Glial cells
  4. D. Endoneurium
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Question 10

A 70-year old male diagnosed with BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia) asks the nurse about his disease. The best response would be:

  1. A. "It an be caused by chronic infection of the urinary tract."
  2. B. "It was caused by your chronic cigarette smoking."
  3. C. "As you age, hormonal imbalances are the more likey cause of your disease."
  4. D. "Chronic obstruction of the bladder due to stone can cause BPH."
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Question 11

After cancer chemotherapy, a client experiences nausea and vomiting. The nurse should highest priority to which intervention?

  1. A. Serving small portions bland food
  2. B. Encouraging rhythmic breathing exercises
  3. C. Administering metoclopramide (Reglan) and dexamethasone (Decadron) as prescribed
  4. D. Withholding fluids for the first 4 to 6 hours after chemotherapy administration
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Question 12

Mr. Reyea has expressive aphasia. As a part of a long range planning. The nurse should ;

  1. A. Provide positive feedback when he uses the word correctly
  2. B. Wait for him to verbally state needs regardless of how long it may take
  3. C. Suggest that he get help at home because the disability is permanent
  4. D. Help the family to accept the fact that Mr, Reyes cannot participate in verbal communication Situation - Patricia Zeno is a client with history myasthenia gravis
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Question 13

A healthcare provider at an urgent care clinic is assessing an adolescent client who has an upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following findings should the provider recognize as a manifestation of pertussis?

  1. A. Inflamed throat with exudate
  2. B. Purulent eye drainage
  3. C. Dry, hacking cough
  4. D. Koplik spots on buccal mucosa
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Question 14

Which of the following is the most important assessment during the acute stage of an unconscious patient like Mr. Franco?

  1. A. Level of awareness and response to pain
  2. B. Papillary reflexes and response to sensory stimuli
  3. C. Coherence and sense of hearing
  4. D. Patency of airway and adequacy of respiration
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Question 15

Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for a client with multiple myeloma?

  1. A. Monitoring respiratory status
  2. B. Restricting fluid intake
  3. C. Balancing rest and activity
  4. D. Preventing bone injury
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About these RN exams pediatrics questions

RN exams pediatrics practice questions, set 3 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.