You match developmental age, safety, and family teaching instead of treating the child as a small adult. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five pediatrics questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
An infant experienced an apparent life-threatening event (ALTE) and is being placed on home apnea monitoring. Parents have understood the instructions for use of a home apnea monitor when they state?
A. "We can adjust the monitor to eliminate false alarms."
B. "We should sleep in the same bed as our monitored infant."
C. "We will check the monitor several times a day to be sure the alarm is working."
D. "We will place the monitor in the crib with our infant."
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — "We will check the monitor several times a day to be sure the alarm is working."
The correct statement indicating understanding of the instructions for use of a home apnea monitor is "We will check the monitor several times a day to be sure the alarm is working." This is important because regular monitoring of the device's functioning ensures that it is able to detect any potential apnea episodes or abnormalities in the infant's breathing patterns. Checking the monitor several times a day helps in maintaining the safety and effectiveness of the monitor in alerting the parents to any potential issues with the infant's breathing. The other options are incorrect: A is incorrect because adjusting the monitor to eliminate false alarms can compromise its accuracy, B is incorrect as the infant should sleep in a separate safe sleep environment to reduce the risk of SIDS, and D is incorrect as the monitor should be placed near the infant's crib but not directly in it for safety reasons.
Question 2
The skull tends to assume a square or boxlike shape in
A. Kleinfelter syndrome
B. neurofibromatosis
C. storage disorder
D. hydrocephalus
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — hydrocephalus
Hydrocephalus is a condition characterized by an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) within the brain, leading to increased intracranial pressure. This can cause the skull to expand and take on a square or boxlike shape, especially in infants whose cranial suturhave not yet fused. Kleinfelter syndrome is a genetic disorder involving an extra X chromosome in males, primarily affecting sexual development and not skull shape. Neurofibromatosis is a genetic condition causing tumors along nervbut donot typically alter skull shape in this manner. Storage disorders , such as lysosomal storage diseases, lead to accumulation of substancwithin cells but are not associated with a boxlike skull. Chronic subdural hemorrhagcould cause other cranial changes, but not this specific shape. Thus, hydrocephalus is the correct answer due to its direct impact on skull morphology through fluid pressure.
Question 3
Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention to prevent infection in patients with AIDS?
A. Prohibiting patients who are severely immunodeficient from having any visitors.
B. Prohibiting visitors with a cough.
C. Wearing protective gear such as gown, mask, gloves, and goggles when entering the room.
D. Ensuring protective barrier isolation precautions are in place.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Wearing protective gear such as gown, mask, gloves, and goggles when entering the room.
The correct nursing intervention to prevent infection in patients with AIDS is to wear protective gear such as gown, mask, gloves, and goggles when entering the patient's room. Patients with AIDS have compromised immune systems, making them more susceptible to infections. Wearing protective gear helps prevent the transmission of pathogens from healthcare providers to the patient and vice versa. It helps minimize the risk of exposure to infectious agents and protects both the patient and the healthcare team. Prohibiting visitors with a cough (option B) may be important for preventing the spread of certain infections, but it is not the most effective measure for protecting patients with AIDS. Option A is not appropriate as it isolates the patient, which can have negative psychological effects. Option D is not specific enough and does not provide clear guidance on infection prevention measures.
Question 4
Mrs. Go is suspected of experiencing respiratory distress from a left-sided pneumothorax. She should be positioned:
A. in a semi-fowler's position
B. trendelenburg position
C. prone position
D. on the right side
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — in a semi-fowler's position
Mrs. Go, who is suspected of experiencing respiratory distress from a left-sided pneumothorax, should be positioned in a semi-fowler's position. This position involves elevating the head of the bed to approximately 30 to 45 degrees. Placing the patient in a semi-fowler's position helps improve lung expansion, facilitates breathing, and promotes optimal oxygenation. It can also help prevent the collapse of the affected lung and assist in reducing the symptoms associated with pneumothorax. Trendelenburg position (B) and prone position (C) are not recommended for pneumothorax as they can worsen the condition by putting additional pressure on the affected lung. Placing the patient on the right side (D) would not specifically address the respiratory distress caused by a left-sided pneumothorax. Therefore, the most appropriate position for Mrs. Go in this situation is the semi-fowler's position.
Question 5
Which statement regarding chlamydia infection is correct?
A. Treatment of choice is oral penicillin.
B. Treatment of choice is nystatin or miconazole.
C. Clinical manifestations include dysuria and urethral itching in males.
D. Clinical manifestations include small, painful vesicles on genital areas.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Clinical manifestations include dysuria and urethral itching in males.
The correct statement regarding chlamydia infection is that the clinical manifestations include dysuria and urethral itching in males. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. In males, common symptoms include a burning sensation during urination (dysuria) and urethral itching. It is important to note that chlamydia is often asymptomatic, especially in women, which is why regular screening is important to detect and treat the infection early. Option A is incorrect because the treatment of choice for chlamydia is typically antibiotics such as azithromycin or doxycycline, not oral penicillin. Option B is incorrect because nystatin or miconazole are used to treat fungal infections, not chlamydia. Option D is incorrect because small, painful vesicles on genital areas are more indicative of herpes simplex virus infection rather than chlamydia
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Question 6
The nurse is assisting the family of a child with a history of encopresis. Which should be included in the nurse's discussion with this family?
A. Instruct the parents to sit the child on the toilet at twice-daily routine intervals.
B. Instruct the parents that the child will probably need to have daily enemas.
C. Suggest the use of stimulant cathartics weekly.
D. Reassure the family that most problems are resolved successfully, with some relapses during periods of stress.
Correct answer:
The most appropriate response for the nurse to include in the discussion with the family of a child with a history of encopresis is to reassure them that most problems are resolved successfully, with some relapses during periods of stress. Encopresis is a common disorder in childhood, characterized by the repeated passage of feces in inappropriate places. It is often related to chronic constipation and fecal impaction. Treatment for encopresis includes addressing the underlying constipation through interventions like dietary changes, behavioral therapies, and possibly medications. It is important for the nurse to educate the family that although it may take time and effort, most children improve with treatment. Reassuring the family that relapses during periods of stress are to be expected can help to alleviate some of their anxiety and encourage them to continue with the treatment plan.
The nurse is assisting the family of a child with a history of encopresis. Which should be included in the nurse's discussion with this family?
A. Instruct the parents to sit the child on the toilet at twice-daily routine intervals.
B. Instruct the parents that the child will probably need to have daily enemas.
C. Suggest the use of stimulant cathartics weekly.
D. Reassure the family that most problems are resolved successfully, with some relapses during periods of stress.
Correct answer:
The most appropriate response for the nurse to include in the discussion with the family of a child with a history of encopresis is to reassure them that most problems are resolved successfully, with some relapses during periods of stress. Encopresis is a common disorder in childhood, characterized by the repeated passage of feces in inappropriate places. It is often related to chronic constipation and fecal impaction. Treatment for encopresis includes addressing the underlying constipation through interventions like dietary changes, behavioral therapies, and possibly medications. It is important for the nurse to educate the family that although it may take time and effort, most children improve with treatment. Reassuring the family that relapses during periods of stress are to be expected can help to alleviate some of their anxiety and encourage them to continue with the treatment plan.
A male client who is HIV positive is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. His live-in partner has accompanied him. During the history interview, the nurse is aware of feeling a negative attitude about the client's lifestyle, what action is most appropriate?
A. Share these feelings with the client
B. Discuss the negative feelings with the
C. Develop a written interview form charge nurse
D. Avoid eye contact with the client
Correct answer:
It is important for the nurse to acknowledge and address any negative feelings or biases that may arise during patient care, especially when caring for a patient with a stigmatized condition like HIV/AIDS. Discussing these negative feelings with a trusted colleague, such as the charge nurse, can help the nurse process and overcome their biases in a safe and non-judgmental environment. By addressing these feelings, the nurse can ensure that they provide compassionate and professional care to the patient and their partner without any personal biases interfering with the care delivery. Sharing these feelings with the client or avoiding eye contact would be inappropriate and counterproductive to establishing trust and providing care. Developing a written interview form would not address the underlying issue of negative attitudes or biases and may not be effective in promoting unbiased care.
The outer layer of connective tissue that surrounds the nerve is called:
A. Epineurium
B. Epithelium
C. Glial cells
D. Endoneurium
Correct answer:
Epineurium . The epineurium is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire nerve, providing structural support and protection to the nerve fibers within. It encasthe fascicl(bundlof nerve fibers) and contains blood vessels that nourish the nerve. Choice B, Epithelium, is incorrect because it refers to a layer of cells lining body surfacor cavities, not a connective tissue layer around nerves. Choice C, Glial cells, is wrong as these are supportive cells in the nervous system (e.g., Schwann cells or astrocytes) and not a connective tissue layer. Choice D, Endoneurium, is also incorrect because it is the innermost connective tissue layer that surrounds individual nerve fibers within a fascicle, not the outer layer of the nerve as a whole. Therefore, Epineurium is the accurate term for the outer connective tissue layer of a nerve, confirming A as the correct answer.
A 70-year old male diagnosed with BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia) asks the nurse about his disease. The best response would be:
A. "It an be caused by chronic infection of the urinary tract."
B. "It was caused by your chronic cigarette smoking."
C. "As you age, hormonal imbalances are the more likey cause of your disease."
D. "Chronic obstruction of the bladder due to stone can cause BPH."
Correct answer:
Option C, "As you age, hormonal imbalances are the more likely cause of your disease," is the best response. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in aging men characterized by an enlarged prostate gland. It is predominantly influenced by hormonal changes, specifically the imbalance between levels of testosterone and estrogen as men age. This hormonal imbalance leads to the proliferation of prostatic tissue and subsequent enlargement of the prostate gland, causing symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, weak stream, and difficulty emptying the bladder. Chronic infection of the urinary tract (Option A) and chronic cigarette smoking (Option B) are not the primary causes of BPH. While chronic obstruction of the bladder due to a stone (Option D) can cause similar symptoms to BPH, the underlying etiology of BPH is related to hormonal changes associated with aging.
After cancer chemotherapy, a client experiences nausea and vomiting. The nurse should highest priority to which intervention?
A. Serving small portions bland food
B. Encouraging rhythmic breathing exercises
C. Administering metoclopramide (Reglan) and dexamethasone (Decadron) as prescribed
D. Withholding fluids for the first 4 to 6 hours after chemotherapy administration
Correct answer:
Administering metoclopramide (Reglan) and dexamethasone (Decadron) as prescribed should be the highest priority intervention for a client experiencing nausea and vomiting after cancer chemotherapy. Metoclopramide is a commonly used antiemetic medication that helps to reduce nausea and vomiting by enhancing gastric emptying and decreasing nausea. Dexamethasone, a corticosteroid, can also help alleviate inflammation that may contribute to the nausea and vomiting. By administering these medications as prescribed, the nurse can effectively address the client's symptoms and improve their comfort level. The other options, such as serving small portions bland food, encouraging rhythmic breathing exercises, and withholding fluids, are important interventions but should not take precedence over providing the prescribed antiemetic medications to manage the client's post-chemotherapy symptoms.
Mr. Reyea has expressive aphasia. As a part of a long range planning. The nurse should ;
A. Provide positive feedback when he uses the word correctly
B. Wait for him to verbally state needs regardless of how long it may take
C. Suggest that he get help at home because the disability is permanent
D. Help the family to accept the fact that Mr, Reyes cannot participate in verbal communication Situation - Patricia Zeno is a client with history myasthenia gravis
Correct answer:
In caring for a patient with expressive aphasia like Mr. Reyea, providing positive feedback when he uses a word correctly is essential for reinforcing and encouraging communication efforts. This positive reinforcement can help boost his confidence and motivation to continue trying to communicate effectively. It is important to support and acknowledge any progress made, as communication difficulties can be frustrating for individuals with aphasia. Waiting for him to verbally state needs regardless of how long it may take, as well as suggesting that he get help at home because the disability is permanent, may not be the most therapeutic or supportive approaches. Helping the family accept that Mr. Reyea cannot participate in verbal communication should not be the primary focus, as there are strategies and therapies that can help improve communication abilities in patients with aphasia.
A healthcare provider at an urgent care clinic is assessing an adolescent client who has an upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following findings should the provider recognize as a manifestation of pertussis?
A. Inflamed throat with exudate
B. Purulent eye drainage
C. Dry, hacking cough
D. Koplik spots on buccal mucosa
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: 'Dry, hacking cough.' A dry, hacking cough is a classic manifestation of pertussis. Pertussis typically presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection, starting with a persistent, severe, and uncontrollable cough that can worsen at night. This cough is often followed by a high-pitched 'whoop' sound as the patient tries to catch their breath, hence the term 'whooping cough.' In contrast, options A, B, and D are not typically associated with pertussis. Inflamed throat with exudate may suggest a bacterial throat infection like streptococcal pharyngitis, purulent eye drainage is more indicative of a bacterial conjunctivitis, and Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa are specific to measles. Therefore, recognizing the dry, hacking cough as a manifestation of pertussis is crucial for early identification and appropriate management of the disease.
Which of the following is the most important assessment during the acute stage of an unconscious patient like Mr. Franco?
A. Level of awareness and response to pain
B. Papillary reflexes and response to sensory stimuli
C. Coherence and sense of hearing
D. Patency of airway and adequacy of respiration
Correct answer:
In the acute stage of an unconscious patient like Mr. Franco, the most critical assessment is ensuring the patency of the airway and evaluating the adequacy of respiration. Maintaining a clear airway is essential to ensure that oxygen can reach the lungs and be circulated to vital organs. Without proper airway management, a patient's condition can quickly deteriorate due to hypoxia, leading to severe complications or even death. Therefore, assessing and securing the airway is the priority in the initial management of an unconscious patient to maintain adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Monitoring the respiration rate, depth, and effort is crucial to identify any signs of respiratory distress or failure that require immediate intervention. Once the airway and breathing are addressed, further assessments related to neurological function and sensory responses can be conducted.
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for a client with multiple myeloma?
A. Monitoring respiratory status
B. Restricting fluid intake
C. Balancing rest and activity
D. Preventing bone injury
Correct answer:
One of the primary concerns in clients with multiple myeloma is bone damage and fractures due to weakened bones caused by the disease. Preventing bone injury is a crucial nursing intervention to focus on for these clients. Measures to prevent bone injury include implementing fall precautions, encouraging safe mobility, providing supportive devices such as walkers or canes, and educating the client on strategies to prevent falls and fractures. Additionally, pain management and regular assessment for signs of bone damage are essential in caring for clients with multiple myeloma. Other interventions such as monitoring respiratory status, balancing rest and activity, and restricting fluid intake may be important in certain situations for these clients but preventing bone injury takes precedence due to the increased risk of skeletal complications associated with multiple myeloma.
RN exams pediatrics practice questions, set 3 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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