You match developmental age, safety, and family teaching instead of treating the child as a small adult. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five pediatrics questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Regarding patient-doctor relationship which of the following is true?
A. Doctors at large are interested in patients emotional clues
B. Doctors overestimate the amount of information they give to patients
C. Patient-doctor relationship donot affect response to drugs
D. Patients are only interested in the doctors technical skill
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Doctors overestimate the amount of information they give to patients
Doctors overestimate the amount of information they give to patients . Studies, such as those in medical communication research, show doctors often assume theyve explained more than patients recall, overestimating information delivery. Choice A is false; while some doctors notice emotional clues, many prioritize biomedical aspects, missing cu(e.g., patient anxiety). Choice C is incorrect; a strong patient-doctor relationship enhanctrust, improving drug adherence and placebo effects, thus affecting outcomes. Choice D is wrong; patients value technical skill but also seek empathy and communication, per patient satisfaction surveys. is false; being called casdepersonalizpatients, often reducing trust, as humanistic care models emphasize. This overestimation stems from cognitive bias doctors assume clarity without verifying patient understanding impacting care quality. Real-world examplinclude miscommunication leading to non-compliance, underscoring Bs truth.
Question 2
Which of the following instructions should Nurse Cheryl include in her teaching plan for the parents of Reggie with otitis media?
A. Placing the child in the supine position to bottle-feed
B. Giving prescribed amoxicillin (Amoxil) on an empty stomach
C. Cleaning the inside of the ear canals with cotton swabs
D. Avoiding contact with people who have upper respiratory tract infections
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Avoiding contact with people who have upper respiratory tract infections
Nurse Cheryl should include in her teaching plan for Reggie's parents to avoid contact with people who have upper respiratory tract infections. Otitis media is often caused by upper respiratory infections, and exposure to individuals with such infections can increase the risk of exacerbating Reggie's condition or causing recurrent infections. Implementing measures to minimize exposure can help prevent further complications and promote faster recovery for Reggie. Placing the child in the supine position to bottle-feed may increase the likelihood of fluid entering the middle ear, worsening the otitis media. Giving amoxicillin on an empty stomach is not recommended as it can cause gastrointestinal upset and reduce absorption; instead, it should be given with food to enhance efficacy. Cleaning the inside of the ear canals with cotton swabs can be harmful and may cause damage or introduce infection, making it an inappropriate practice in managing otitis media.
Question 3
Which of the following actions by the practitioner would be important in the prevention of rheumatic fever?
A. Encourage routine hypertensive screenings.
B. Conduct routine occult blood screenings.
C. Refer children with sore throats for throat cultures.
D. Recommend salicylates instead for minor discomforts.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Refer children with sore throats for throat cultures.
The correct action to prevent rheumatic fever is to refer children with sore throats for throat cultures (Choice C). Rheumatic fever is caused by an abnormal immune response to a bacterial infection with group A Streptococcus. By promptly diagnosing and treating streptococcal infections with antibiotics, the risk of developing rheumatic fever can be minimized. Conducting throat cultures for children with sore throats helps identify streptococcal infections and allows for appropriate antibiotic treatment, thereby preventing the progression to rheumatic fever. Encouraging routine hypertensive screenings (Choice A) and conducting routine occult blood screenings (Choice B) are not directly related to the prevention of rheumatic fever. Recommending salicylates instead for minor discomforts (Choice D) is contraindicated in cases of suspected or confirmed streptococcal infections due to the risk of worsening symptoms and potentially triggering rheumatic fever.
Question 4
Which of the following is most important discharge teaching for Mr. Dela Isla
A. Emergency Numbers
B. Relaxation technique
C. Drug Compliance
D. Dietary prescription SITUATION: Mr. Franco, 70 years old, suddenly could not lift his spoons nor speak at breakfast. He was rushed to the hospital unconscious. His diagnosis was CVA.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Drug Compliance
In the case of Mr. Dela Isla, who suffered a CVA, one of the most important discharge teachings would be drug compliance. Following a stroke, patients are often prescribed medications to help manage their condition and reduce the risk of further complications. It is crucial for Mr. Dela Isla to understand the importance of taking his medications as prescribed by his healthcare provider. Non-compliance with medication regimens can have serious consequences and may increase the likelihood of recurrent strokes or other health issues. Therefore, ensuring that Mr. Dela Isla understands the purpose of his medications, how to take them correctly, and the potential side effects is essential for his recovery and ongoing health management. While emergency numbers, relaxation techniques, and dietary prescriptions are important aspects of care, ensuring drug compliance is critical for the immediate and long-term well-being of a patient who has experienced a stroke.
Question 5
A patient is unable to control his bowels ff. a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Which intervention by the nurse can help reduce episodes of bowel incontinence?
A. Ask the patient frequently if he has to have a bowel movement
B. Place incontinence pads on the patient's bed and chair
C. Toilet the patient according to his pre-illness schedule, whether or not he feels the urge
D. Take care not to embarrass the patient when incontinent episode occur
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Toilet the patient according to his pre-illness schedule, whether or not he feels the urge
Option C, which is to toilet the patient according to his pre-illness schedule, whether or not he feels the urge, is the best intervention by the nurse to help reduce episodes of bowel incontinence in this patient with subarachnoid hemorrhage. This strategy can help establish a routine and promote regular bowel movements, which may reduce the likelihood of bowel incontinence episodes. Asking the patient frequently if he has to have a bowel movement (Option A) may not be effective, as the patient may not always be able to accurately communicate their needs due to the underlying condition. Placing incontinence pads on the patient's bed and chair (Option B) may manage the consequences of incontinence but does not address the root cause. While taking care not to embarrass the patient when incontinent episodes occur (Option D) is important for maintaining the patient's dignity, it does not directly address the issue of reducing bowel incontinence episodes.
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Question 6
Arvic who is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 1 displays symptoms of hypoglycemia; which of the following actions should the nurse instruct the parents?
A. Give the child honey (simple sugar).
B. Give the child milk (complex sugar).
C. Contact the healthcare provider before doing anything.
D. Give the child nothing by mouth.
Correct answer:
In a patient with diabetes mellitus type 1 showing symptoms of hypoglycemia, it is important to take immediate action to raise their blood sugar levels. The best way to quickly raise blood sugar levels in a hypoglycemic patient is by giving them a simple sugar, such as honey, fruit juice, or glucose tablets. These sugars are rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream, providing a quick source of energy to the body. Milk, which was mentioned in option B, contains complex sugars and fats that may delay the increase in blood sugar levels. It is crucial to act promptly in a hypoglycemic situation, as untreated hypoglycemia can lead to serious complications, including seizures and loss of consciousness. Contacting the healthcare provider before giving treatment, as in option C, may cause dangerous delays in addressing the low blood sugar situation. Option D, giving the child nothing by mouth, is not appropriate in this scenario as it can wors
A 36 y.o. woman who has had no prenatal care comes into the hospital in active labor for her fourth child. She has vesicles evident on her perineum. The following nursing actions are appropriate to protect the unborn baby and the staff, EXCEPT:
A. Maintain standard precautions
B. Prepare for the possibility that the baby may be delivered by CS.
C. Notify the obstetrician and nurse midwife about the vesicles as soon as possible.
D. Apply antibiotic ointment to the vesicles and place the mother in reverse isolation
Correct answer:
When a woman with vesicles on her perineum comes into the hospital in active labor, it is important to take precautions to protect the unborn baby and the staff. However, applying antibiotic ointment to the vesicles and placing the mother in reverse isolation is not appropriate in this situation. This is because her condition is most likely due to herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection, which can be transmitted to the baby during birth leading to severe complications. Placing the mother in reverse isolation can increase the risk of transmission to the healthcare staff as well. Instead, notifying the obstetrician and nurse midwife about the vesicles as soon as possible is crucial for proper management and preparing for the possibility that the baby may be delivered by cesarean section is important to reduce the risk of transmission during vaginal birth. Maintaining standard precautions is essential to prevent the spread of infection.
A client suspected of having colorectal cancer will require which diagnostic study to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Stool hematest
B. Abdominal computed tomography (CT)
C. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) scan
D. Sigmoidoscopy
Correct answer:
Sigmoidoscopy is a diagnostic study that allows direct visualization of the lower part of the colon and rectum using a flexible tube with a camera at its end, called a sigmoidoscope. This procedure enables the healthcare provider to visually inspect the lining of the colon and rectum, identify any abnormal growths, such as tumors or polyps, and obtain tissue samples for biopsy if necessary. In the case of suspected colorectal cancer, sigmoidoscopy is crucial for confirming the diagnosis by directly visualizing any cancerous lesions or abnormal tissue changes in the colon and rectum. Other diagnostic tests, such as stool hematest, abdominal CT, and CEA scan, may aid in the evaluation and staging of colorectal cancer but are not as effective in confirming the diagnosis as sigmoidoscopy. Thus, sigmoidoscopy is the preferred diagnostic study for definitively diagnosing colorectal cancer in a client suspected of having the disease.
A 58-year-old man is diagnosed with cancer of the larynx. Which of the ff. are early symptoms of this cancer?
A. Anemia and fatigue
B. A noticeable lump in the neck
C. Crackles and stridor
D. Dysphagia or hoarseness
Correct answer:
Early symptoms of cancer of the larynx typically include persistent hoarseness or a change in the voice quality. This may be due to the tumor affecting the vocal cords. Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can also be an early sign. As the tumor grows, it may cause obstruction or compression in the throat, leading to difficulties in swallowing. These symptoms should prompt further evaluation by a healthcare provider for proper diagnosis and treatment planning. Anemia and fatigue (Choice A) are more general symptoms that can occur in cancer patients but are not typically specific to laryngeal cancer. The presence of a noticeable lump in the neck (Choice B) may indicate swelling of lymph nodes due to cancer spread but is not an early symptom commonly associated with laryngeal cancer. Crackles and stridor (Choice C) are respiratory sounds associated with conditions affecting the airways and are less likely to be early symptoms
A client with ascites has a paracentesis, and 1500 ml of fluid is removed. Immediately following the procedure it is most important for the nurse to observe for:
A. A rapid, thready pulse
B. Decreased peristalsis .
C. Respiratory congestion
D. An increased in temperature
Correct answer:
Following a paracentesis procedure where a large amount of ascitic fluid is removed, there is a risk of developing a fluid shift and a potential complication known as "paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction" (PICD). This may cause a sudden increase in central blood volume due to rapid re-distribution of fluid, leading to respiratory congestion, dyspnea, and hypoxemia. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client closely for signs of respiratory distress or congestion immediately after the procedure to prevent any respiratory complications. A rapid, thready pulse (choice A) may indicate hypovolemia, but it is not the most important immediate concern in this case. Decreased peristalsis (choice B) and an increased temperature (choice D) are not typically associated with the immediate post-paracentesis period and are therefore lower priorities compared to monitoring for signs of respiratory congestion.
What is the most effective treatment for cystic fibrosis?
A. Heart-lung transplant
B. Administration of prophylactic antibiotics
C. Administration of nebulized bronchodilators
D. Vigorous and consistent chest physiotherapy
Correct answer:
The major objective of therapy in cystic fibrosis (CF) is to promote the removal of secretions from the lungs. Chest physiotherapy, which involves postural drainage, vibration, and percussion, has been the mainstay of treatment for CF patients. This technique helps loosen and clear mucus from the airways, reducing the risk of lung infections and improving respiratory function. Aerobic exercise is also effective in clearing the airways and is an essential part of the treatment plan for CF patients. While prophylactic antibiotics may be used for early signs of infection, they are not the most effective treatment for CF. Nebulized bronchodilators do not provide long-term benefits for CF patients. Heart-lung transplant may be considered for some CF patients, but it is not a suitable option for most individuals due to various limitations and availability issues. Therefore, the most effective treatment for cystic fibrosis is
A female client age 66 is admitted ff a nephrolithomy. One of her laboratory tests reveals a urinary tract infection. Which would be the best nursing action in her case?
A. Administer IV fluids and blood transfusions
B. Administer narcotic analgesics as prescribed
C. Encourage fluid intake of 3000ml/day
D. Suggest taking herbs or spices to increase food palatability
Correct answer:
In the case of a female client age 66 admitted for a nephrolithotomy with a urinary tract infection, the best nursing action is to encourage fluid intake of 3000ml/day. Adequate hydration helps in flushing out the bacteria causing the urinary tract infection and can prevent further complications. Increasing fluid intake also helps in preventing the formation of new kidney stones. Administering IV fluids and blood transfusions may be necessary based on the patient's overall condition, but the priority action in this case is to promote increased oral fluid intake. Administering narcotic analgesics as prescribed can help manage pain related to the nephrolithotomy procedure, but it does not directly address the urinary tract infection. Suggesting taking herbs or spices to increase food palatability is not the priority in this situation and may not contribute significantly to the management of the urinary tract infection.
A patient with a new diagnosis of lymphoma is experiencing fatigue. Which of the ff. is the best way to assess her fatigue?
A. Observe her activity level
B. Have her rate her fatigue on a scale of 0 to
C. Monitor for changes in vital signs 10
D. Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit values
Correct answer:
The best way to assess a patient's fatigue is to have her rate her fatigue on a scale of 0 to 10. Fatigue is primarily a subjective symptom, and patients are the best source of information regarding their own levels of fatigue. Using a standardized scale allows for a more quantitative assessment of the severity of the fatigue experienced by the patient. This can also help in monitoring changes in fatigue over time and evaluating the effectiveness of interventions aimed at managing fatigue. While observing the patient's activity level (choice A) can provide some information, it may not always accurately reflect the subjective experience of fatigue. Monitoring for changes in vital signs (choice C) and assessing hemoglobin and hematocrit values (choice D) can be important in evaluating overall health status and potential causes of fatigue, but they do not directly assess the patient's subjective experience of fatigue.
A child is playing in the playroom. The nurse needs to obtain a child's blood pressure. Which is the appropriate procedure for obtaining the blood pressure?
A. Take the blood pressure in the playroom.
B. Ask the child to come to the exam room to obtain the blood pressure.
C. Ask the child to return to his or her room for the blood pressure, then escort the child back to the playroom.
D. Document that the blood pressure was not obtained because the child was in the playroom.
Correct answer:
The appropriate procedure for obtaining a child's blood pressure is to ask the child to come to the exam room to obtain the blood pressure. This is important because the exam room provides a quiet and controlled environment, which is conducive to accurately measuring blood pressure. Taking the blood pressure in the playroom may lead to inaccurate readings due to distractions and noise. Similarly, asking the child to return to his or her room for the blood pressure and then escorting the child back to the playroom is not necessary and may disrupt the child's play. Documenting that the blood pressure was not obtained because the child was in the playroom is not a valid or appropriate action as it is important to ensure the child's health and monitor their blood pressure in a suitable environment. Therefore, the best course of action is to ask the child to come to the exam room to obtain the blood pressure.
Which is the most critical physiologic change required of the newborn?
A. Closure of fetal shunts in the heart
B. Stabilization of fluid and electrolytes
C. Body-temperature maintenance
D. Onset of breathing
Correct answer:
The most critical physiologic change required of the newborn is the onset of breathing. Prior to birth, the fetus receives oxygen from the mother's blood through the placenta. However, once the newborn is delivered, it needs to begin breathing on its own to support oxygen exchange and remove carbon dioxide from the body. The respiratory system must transition from a fluid-filled state in the womb to an air-filled state outside the womb. The onset of breathing is essential for the newborn's survival and initiates the process of oxygenation of tissues and removal of carbon dioxide, which are vital for metabolism and overall physiological functioning. While closure of fetal shunts, stabilization of fluid and electrolytes, and body-temperature maintenance are also important changes that occur in the newborn, the onset of breathing is the most critical to ensure proper oxygenation of the body's tissues.
RN exams pediatrics practice questions, set 2 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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