You choose the therapeutic response, the safety priority, and the cue that means the patient is getting worse. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five mental health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Hugo has a fraternal twin named Franco who is unaffected by mental illness even though they were raised in the same dysfunctional household. Franco asks the nurse, 'Why Hugo and not me?' The nurse replies:
A. Your father was probably less abusive to you.
B. Hugo likely has a genetic vulnerability.
C. You probably ignored the situation.
D. Hugo responded to perceived threats by focusing on an internal world.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Hugo likely has a genetic vulnerability.
The correct answer is B because genetic vulnerability plays a significant role in mental illness. Hugo and Franco, being fraternal twins, may have different genetic predispositions. This means that Hugo may have inherited genetic factors that make him more susceptible to mental illness compared to Franco. Therefore, even though they were raised in the same dysfunctional household, Hugo's genetic vulnerability could be the reason for his mental illness.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the key factor of genetic vulnerability. Choice A suggests a different reason related to abuse by their father, choice C implies Franco's ignorance of the situation, and choice D refers to Hugo's coping mechanism rather than genetic predisposition.
Question 2
A nurse works with a patient diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder who has frequent flashbacks as well as persistent symptoms of arousal. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
A. Trigger flashbacks intentionally in order to help the patient learn to cope with them.
B. Explain that the physical symptoms are related to the psychological state.
C. Encourage repression of memories associated with the traumatic event.
D. Support numbing as a temporary way to manage intolerable feelings.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Explain that the physical symptoms are related to the psychological state.
Persons with posttraumatic stress disorder often experience somatic symptoms or sympathetic nervous system arousal that can be confusing and distressing. Explaining that these are the body's responses to psychological trauma helps the patient understand how such symptoms are part of the illness and something that will respond to treatment. This decreases powerlessness over the symptoms and helps instill a sense of hope. It also helps the patient to understand how relaxation, breathing exercises, and imagery can be helpful in symptom reduction. The goal of treatment for posttraumatic stress disorder is to come to terms with the event so treatment efforts would not include repression of memories or numbing. Triggering flashbacks would increase patient distress.
Question 3
A nurse works with a patient diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder who has frequent flashbacks as well as persistent symptoms of arousal. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
A. Trigger flashbacks intentionally in order to help the patient learn to cope with them.
B. Explain that the physical symptoms are related to the psychological state.
C. Encourage repression of memories associated with the traumatic event.
D. Support numbing as a temporary way to manage intolerable feelings.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Explain that the physical symptoms are related to the psychological state.
Persons with posttraumatic stress disorder often experience somatic symptoms or sympathetic nervous system arousal that can be confusing and distressing. Explaining that these are the body's responses to psychological trauma helps the patient understand how such symptoms are part of the illness and something that will respond to treatment. This decreases powerlessness over the symptoms and helps instill a sense of hope. It also helps the patient to understand how relaxation, breathing exercises, and imagery can be helpful in symptom reduction. The goal of treatment for posttraumatic stress disorder is to come to terms with the event so treatment efforts would not include repression of memories or numbing. Triggering flashbacks would increase patient distress.
Question 4
The nurse is teaching a class on preventing osteoporosis to a group of perimenopausal women. Which of these actions is the best way to prevent or delay bone loss in this group?
A. Taking calcium and vitamin D supplements
B. Taking medications to prevent osteoporosis
C. Performing physical activity, such as fast walking
D. Assessing bone density annually
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Performing physical activity, such as fast walking
The correct answer is C: Performing physical activity, such as fast walking. Physical activity, particularly weight-bearing exercises like fast walking, helps to strengthen bones and prevent bone loss. Weight-bearing activities increase bone density and reduce the risk of osteoporosis. Regular physical activity also improves balance and coordination, reducing the risk of falls and fractures. Taking calcium and vitamin D supplements (choice A) is important but should be combined with physical activity for optimal bone health. Taking medications (choice B) is typically reserved for those at high risk or already diagnosed with osteoporosis. Assessing bone density annually (choice D) is important for monitoring bone health but does not directly prevent bone loss.
Question 5
A patient with schizophrenia is experiencing hallucinations. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Encourage the patient to ignore the voices.
B. Engage the patient in a reality-based activity.
C. Provide a quiet environment to reduce stimulation.
D. Ask the patient to describe the hallucinations in detail.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Engage the patient in a reality-based activity.
Engaging the patient in a reality-based activity is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with schizophrenia experiencing hallucinations. This intervention can help distract the patient from the hallucinations and reorient them to the present, promoting a connection with reality and potentially reducing distress associated with the hallucinations. Choice A, encouraging the patient to ignore the voices, may not be effective as it can be challenging for the patient to dismiss the hallucinations. Choice C, providing a quiet environment, is helpful but may not directly address the hallucinations. Choice D, asking the patient to describe the hallucinations in detail, may increase the patient's focus on the hallucinations, potentially worsening distress.
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Question 6
The parents of a child with ADHD bring the child for a follow-up visit. During the visit, they tell the nurse that the child receives his first dose of methylphenidate (Ritalin) at about 7:30 AM every morning before leaving for school. The teacher and school nurse have noticed a return in the child's overactivity and distractibility just before lunch. The child's second dose is scheduled for about 12 noon. Which of the following might the nurse suggest as a possible solution to control the child's symptoms a bit more effectively?
A. Giving the second dose at 1 PM or later.
B. Switching to a longer acting preparation.
C. Splitting the early morning dose in half.
D. Switching to another class of medication.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Switching to a longer acting preparation. By switching to a longer-acting preparation of methylphenidate, the child will receive a sustained release of the medication throughout the day, which can help control symptoms more effectively. This would prevent the dip in medication effectiveness before lunch.
A: Giving the second dose at 1 PM or later may not be as effective in maintaining symptom control throughout the school day.
C: Splitting the early morning dose in half may not provide consistent symptom control throughout the day.
D: Switching to another class of medication is not necessary if the child is responding well to methylphenidate, and a longer-acting preparation of the same medication can be a more appropriate solution.
The nurse is assessing a 35-year-old woman who is seeking assistance at a local community counseling center. Which of the following statements made by the woman would indicate that she is experiencing a crisis?
A. I'm so upset; my husband has never left me like this before.
B. I'm confused and hurt; I have lost my best friend and my lover.
C. I don't understand; I can't seem to function like I usually do.
D. No matter what I do, I am still overcome by these sad feelings.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because the statement indicates a sudden inability to function normally, which is a key characteristic of a crisis. When a person mentions that they can't seem to function like they usually do, it suggests a significant disruption in their usual coping mechanisms and daily functioning. This can be a sign of a crisis situation where the individual is overwhelmed and struggling to manage their emotions and behavior effectively.
Choices A, B, and D do not specifically indicate a crisis as they primarily focus on emotional distress and sadness related to specific events or relationships. While these situations may also be challenging for the individual, they do not necessarily imply a crisis involving a sudden disruption in functioning.
A brother calls to speak to his sister who has been admitted to the psychiatric unit. The nurse connects him to the community phone and the sister is summoned. Later the nurse realizes that the brother was not on the clients approved call list. What law has the nurse broken?
A. The National Alliance for the Mentally Ill Act
B. The Tarasoff Ruling
C. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
D. The Good Samaritan Law
Correct answer:
The nurse in this scenario has potentially violated the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) by disclosing protected health information (the sister's admission to the psychiatric unit and the phone call) to someone not authorized to receive it, which in this case is the brother who was not on the client's approved call list. HIPAA is a federal law that protects the privacy and security of individuals' medical information, and healthcare providers are required to maintain the confidentiality of patient information unless authorized by the patient or required by law to disclose it. The nurse should have verified the brother's authorization to receive such information before connecting the call to ensure compliance with HIPAA regulations.
Group dynamics can vary widely and at times members are capable of disrupting the group process. Which of the following participant traits may indicate a need for additional support for a new nurse facilitator? Select all that apply.
A. A member with paranoid delusions
B. A quietly tearful participant expressing suicidal thoughts
C. An angry woman who raises her voice
D. A calm but ineffective communicator
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because a quietly tearful participant expressing suicidal thoughts indicates a serious mental health concern that requires immediate attention and support. This participant may be in distress and at risk of harm, making it crucial for the new nurse facilitator to provide appropriate resources and assistance.
Choice A is incorrect because paranoid delusions may not necessarily impact the group dynamics unless they lead to disruptive behavior. Choice C is incorrect as anger alone does not indicate a need for additional support unless it escalates to disruptive behavior. Choice D is also incorrect as being a calm but ineffective communicator may not necessarily indicate a need for additional support unless it hinders the group process.
The nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving treatment for schizophrenia with chlorpromazine for the past year. It would be essential for the nurse to monitor the client for which of the following?
A. Weight loss
B. Torticollis
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Tardive dyskinesia
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, including chlorpromazine. It is characterized by involuntary repetitive movements, such as lip smacking or tongue protrusion. The nurse should monitor the client for early signs of tardive dyskinesia to prevent irreversible damage.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Weight loss is not typically associated with chlorpromazine use; in fact, weight gain is more common.
B: Torticollis is a condition characterized by a twisted neck, which is not a common side effect of chlorpromazine.
C: Hypoglycemia is not a known side effect of chlorpromazine; instead, it is more commonly associated with other medications like insulin or sulfonylureas.
While assessing a 7-month-old infant, the nurse makes a loud noise and notices the following response: abduction and flexion of the arms and legs; fanning of the fingers, and curling of the index finger and thumb in a C position, followed by the infant bringing in the arms and legs to the body. What does the nurse know about this response?
A. This response could indicate brachial nerve palsy.
B. This reaction is an expected startle response at this age.
C. This reflex should have disappeared between 1 and 4 months of age.
D. This response is normal as long as the movements are bilaterally symmetric.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because the described response is the Moro reflex, an expected startle reflex seen in infants around 7 months of age. The Moro reflex involves the abduction and flexion of the arms and legs, fanning of the fingers, and curling of the index finger and thumb in a C position, followed by bringing in the arms and legs. This reflex typically appears around birth and peaks at 2 months, then diminishes as the baby grows. It is a primitive reflex that serves as a protective response to a sudden loss of support or loud noise. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the response described is not indicative of brachial nerve palsy, should not have disappeared by 1-4 months, and does not need to be bilaterally symmetric to be considered normal.
While assessing a 7-month-old infant, the nurse makes a loud noise and notices the following response: abduction and flexion of the arms and legs; fanning of the fingers, and curling of the index finger and thumb in a C position, followed by the infant bringing in the arms and legs to the body. What does the nurse know about this response?
A. This response could indicate brachial nerve palsy.
B. This reaction is an expected startle response at this age.
C. This reflex should have disappeared between 1 and 4 months of age.
D. This response is normal as long as the movements are bilaterally symmetric.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because the described response is the Moro reflex, an expected startle reflex seen in infants around 7 months of age. The Moro reflex involves the abduction and flexion of the arms and legs, fanning of the fingers, and curling of the index finger and thumb in a C position, followed by bringing in the arms and legs. This reflex typically appears around birth and peaks at 2 months, then diminishes as the baby grows. It is a primitive reflex that serves as a protective response to a sudden loss of support or loud noise. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the response described is not indicative of brachial nerve palsy, should not have disappeared by 1-4 months, and does not need to be bilaterally symmetric to be considered normal.
A nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child who has croup and wet the bed overnight. When the parents visit the next day, the nurse explains the situation, and one of the parents says, 'She never wet the bed at home. I am so embarrassed.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
A. It is expected for children who are hospitalized to regress. The toileting skills will return when your child is feeling better.'
B. Why does it bother you that your child has wet the bed?'
C. Your child did not seem upset, so I wouldn't worry about it if I were you.'
D. I know this can really be embarrassing. I have kids myself, so I understand, and it doesn't bother me.'
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A. The nurse should reassure the parent that it is expected for hospitalized children to regress in their toileting skills due to stress or illness. By explaining this, the nurse provides reassurance that the child's bedwetting is temporary and not a cause for concern. This response shows empathy, understanding, and offers a logical explanation for the situation.
Other choices are incorrect:
B: This response is confrontational and does not address the parent's concerns or provide reassurance.
C: This response dismisses the parent's feelings and does not offer any explanation or support.
D: While this response shows empathy, it does not provide a clear explanation or reassurance about the situation, which is essential in this scenario.
A 79-year-old client admits that his daughter hits him while helping him dress each morning. What is the appropriate nursing action?
A. The family member is to be charged for his offense.
B. It is a requirement that he be removed for his safety.
C. The nurse is required to make sure the proper authority is informed.
D. A competency hearing must be scheduled for the client.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: The nurse is required to make sure the proper authority is informed. In this situation, the nurse has a duty to report any form of elder abuse to the appropriate authorities to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Reporting to the proper authority can lead to interventions to protect the client from further harm.
Incorrect answers:
A: The family member is to be charged for his offense - This is not the nurse's role and may escalate the situation.
B: It is a requirement that he be removed for his safety - Removing the client may not address the root cause of the abuse.
D: A competency hearing must be scheduled for the client - Competency is not the primary concern in this case; the focus should be on addressing the abuse.
While interviewing a client, the nurse takes notes to assist with accurate documentation later. Which statement is most accurate regarding note-taking during an interview?
A. The client's comfort level is increased when the nurse maintains eye contact while taking notes.
B. The interview process is enhanced with note-taking, allowing the client to speak at a normal pace.
C. Note-taking during an interview is not a legal obligation of the examining nurse.
D. The nurse's ability to directly observe the client's nonverbal communication is limited with note-taking.
Correct answer:
During an interview, note-taking can hinder the nurse's ability to directly observe the client's nonverbal cues such as body language, facial expressions, and tone of voice. These nonverbal cues are crucial for understanding the client's emotions, feelings, and overall communication. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to strike a balance between note-taking for documentation purposes and actively observing the client's nonverbal communication to ensure a comprehensive assessment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because maintaining eye contact, enhancing the interview process with note-taking, and legal obligations of note-taking during an interview do not directly address the issue of limited observation of nonverbal communication while taking notes.
RN exams mental health practice questions, set 47 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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