You choose the therapeutic response, the safety priority, and the cue that means the patient is getting worse. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five mental health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Nancy is a nurse. After talking with her mother, she became concerned enough to drive over and check on her. Her mother's appearance is disheveled, words are nonsensical, smells strongly of urine, and there is a stain on her dressing gown. Nancy recognizes that her mother's condition is likely temporary due to:
A. Early onset dementia
B. A mild cognitive disorder
C. A urinary tract infection
D. Skipping breakfast
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — A urinary tract infection
The correct answer is C: A urinary tract infection. Nancy's mother's symptoms such as nonsensical speech, disheveled appearance, strong urine smell, and stain on dressing gown are indicative of a urinary tract infection. UTIs in the elderly can cause confusion, delirium, and incontinence. By recognizing these symptoms, Nancy can suspect a UTI as the cause and seek medical treatment promptly to address the infection.
Incorrect choices:
A: Early onset dementia - Symptoms of UTI are acute and temporary, not indicative of a chronic condition like dementia.
B: A mild cognitive disorder - UTI symptoms are not typically associated with mild cognitive disorders.
D: Skipping breakfast - Skipping breakfast does not explain the range of symptoms observed in Nancy's mother.
Question 2
Following involvement in a MVC, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client's blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DTs)?
A. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM.
B. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM.
C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM.
D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM.
The correct answer is D, Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM. This is because delirium tremens (DTs) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can be life-threatening. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that helps to manage the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, including agitation, hallucinations, and seizures. It works by calming the central nervous system. Prochlorperazine (A) is an antiemetic, not suitable for managing DTs. Hydromorphone (B) is an opioid analgesic, not indicated for alcohol withdrawal. Chlorpromazine (C) is an antipsychotic used for conditions like schizophrenia, not for alcohol withdrawal. In summary, Lorazepam is the appropriate choice for managing DTs due to its effectiveness in calming the central nervous system and managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
Question 3
A nurse is preparing a presentation about mental health problems associated with specific cultural groups. When describing mental health problems associated with Asian Americans, Polynesians, and Pacific Islanders, the nurse would address high rates of which of the following?
A. Schizophrenia
B. Manic disorders
C. Dementia
D. Suicide
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Suicide
The correct answer is D: Suicide. In Asian American, Polynesian, and Pacific Islander cultures, there are high rates of suicide due to various factors such as stigma around mental health, cultural norms, and social pressures. Suicide prevention efforts are crucial in these communities.
Incorrect choices:
A: Schizophrenia - While schizophrenia can affect individuals in any cultural group, it is not specifically associated with higher rates in Asian Americans, Polynesians, and Pacific Islanders.
B: Manic disorders - Manic disorders are not typically identified as being prevalent in these cultural groups.
C: Dementia - Dementia is not culturally specific and does not have higher rates in Asian Americans, Polynesians, and Pacific Islanders compared to other groups.
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing withdrawal from alcohol. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse monitor for?
A. Fatigue and lethargy
B. Severe agitation, tremors, and seizures
C. Headaches and nausea
D. Increased appetite and weight gain
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Severe agitation, tremors, and seizures
The correct answer is B because severe agitation, tremors, and seizures are common symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, known as delirium tremens, which can be life-threatening. These symptoms indicate hyperactivity of the central nervous system due to alcohol withdrawal. Monitoring for these symptoms is crucial for early intervention and preventing potential complications.
A: Fatigue and lethargy are not typically associated with alcohol withdrawal.
C: Headaches and nausea are common symptoms of alcohol withdrawal but are not indicative of severe withdrawal requiring immediate intervention.
D: Increased appetite and weight gain are not symptoms of alcohol withdrawal; in fact, weight loss is more common due to decreased appetite and malnutrition during withdrawal.
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child who has croup and wet the bed overnight. When the parents visit the next day, the nurse explains the situation, and one of the parents says, 'She never wet the bed at home. I am so embarrassed.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
A. It is expected for children who are hospitalized to regress. The toileting skills will return when your child is feeling better.'
B. Why does it bother you that your child has wet the bed?'
C. Your child did not seem upset, so I wouldn't worry about it if I were you.'
D. I know this can really be embarrassing. I have kids myself, so I understand, and it doesn't bother me.'
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — It is expected for children who are hospitalized to regress. The toileting skills will return when your child is feeling better.'
The correct answer is A. The nurse should reassure the parent that it is expected for hospitalized children to regress in their toileting skills due to stress or illness. By explaining this, the nurse provides reassurance that the child's bedwetting is temporary and not a cause for concern. This response shows empathy, understanding, and offers a logical explanation for the situation.
Other choices are incorrect:
B: This response is confrontational and does not address the parent's concerns or provide reassurance.
C: This response dismisses the parent's feelings and does not offer any explanation or support.
D: While this response shows empathy, it does not provide a clear explanation or reassurance about the situation, which is essential in this scenario.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
When sharing her feelings about separating from a therapy group, the patient stated, “I feel a bit sad and empty that I won’t be seeing you folks again.” What is the most accurate evaluation of the patient’s statement?
A. It indicates regression and her lack of readiness to terminate.
B. Unconsciously, she is hoping she will be permitted to continue the group.
C. She is demonstrating normal feelings associated with termination of therapy.
D. She needs further evaluation by her therapist to determine readiness to
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because the patient expressing feeling sad and empty about leaving the therapy group is a normal response to the termination of therapy. This indicates that the patient has developed attachments and a sense of belonging within the group, which is a common aspect of group therapy. It shows emotional investment in the therapeutic process and signifies progress in the patient's emotional awareness and ability to express feelings.
Choice A is incorrect because the statement does not necessarily indicate regression but rather a normal emotional response. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes unconscious motivations without evidence. Choice D is incorrect as it is not necessary to question the patient's readiness based on the provided statement.
When assessing a client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which finding should the nurse expect?
A. Hypervigilance
B. Insomnia
C. Flashbacks
D. Suicidal ideation
Correct answer:
Clients with PTSD commonly exhibit symptoms such as hypervigilance, insomnia, flashbacks, difficulty concentrating, and increased irritability. Hypervigilance refers to an enhanced state of awareness and alertness, often seen in individuals with PTSD as they are constantly on guard for potential threats. Insomnia is a common sleep disturbance associated with PTSD, where individuals may have trouble falling or staying asleep. Flashbacks involve re-experiencing the traumatic event as if it is occurring in the present moment. Suicidal ideation, while a serious concern in mental health, is not a hallmark symptom specifically associated with PTSD. Therefore, the correct finding that the nurse should expect when assessing a client diagnosed with PTSD is hypervigilance.
A nurse is planning care for a depressed client. Which approach is most therapeutic?
A. Allowing the client time to complete activities.
B. Encouraging the client to participate in group therapy.
C. Setting strict deadlines for task completion.
D. Providing constant supervision.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A, allowing the client time to complete activities. This approach is therapeutic as it promotes autonomy and self-efficacy, which are crucial in managing depression. By giving the client the freedom to complete activities at their own pace, it fosters a sense of control and empowerment. Encouraging participation in group therapy (B) can also be beneficial, but it may not be as effective if the client is not ready or willing. Setting strict deadlines (C) can increase stress and worsen depressive symptoms. Providing constant supervision (D) may feel intrusive and undermine the client's independence. Ultimately, choice A aligns with the principles of client-centered care and empowerment, making it the most therapeutic approach in this scenario.
A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement to address this symptom?
A. Encourage the client to express feelings about the hallucinations.
B. Distract the client from the hallucinations.
C. Provide reality-based feedback about the hallucinations.
D. Encourage the client to ignore the hallucinations.
Correct answer:
The correct intervention for a client experiencing auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia is to provide reality-based feedback about the hallucinations. By providing reality-based feedback, the nurse helps the client differentiate between what is real and what is not, which can help decrease the distress and impact of the hallucinations on the client's perception of reality. Encouraging the client to express feelings (Choice A) may not directly address the hallucinations. Distracting the client (Choice B) may temporarily alleviate the symptoms but does not help the client differentiate reality from hallucinations. Encouraging the client to ignore the hallucinations (Choice D) may not be effective as the client may struggle to do so without appropriate guidance.
A nurse is planning care for a depressed client. Which approach is most therapeutic?
A. Allowing the client time to complete activities.
B. Encouraging the client to participate in group therapy.
C. Setting strict deadlines for task completion.
D. Providing constant supervision.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A, allowing the client time to complete activities. This approach is therapeutic as it promotes autonomy and self-efficacy, which are crucial in managing depression. By giving the client the freedom to complete activities at their own pace, it fosters a sense of control and empowerment. Encouraging participation in group therapy (B) can also be beneficial, but it may not be as effective if the client is not ready or willing. Setting strict deadlines (C) can increase stress and worsen depressive symptoms. Providing constant supervision (D) may feel intrusive and undermine the client's independence. Ultimately, choice A aligns with the principles of client-centered care and empowerment, making it the most therapeutic approach in this scenario.
Following involvement in a MVC, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client's blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DTs)?
A. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM.
B. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM.
C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM.
D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D, Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM. This is because delirium tremens (DTs) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can be life-threatening. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that helps to manage the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, including agitation, hallucinations, and seizures. It works by calming the central nervous system. Prochlorperazine (A) is an antiemetic, not suitable for managing DTs. Hydromorphone (B) is an opioid analgesic, not indicated for alcohol withdrawal. Chlorpromazine (C) is an antipsychotic used for conditions like schizophrenia, not for alcohol withdrawal. In summary, Lorazepam is the appropriate choice for managing DTs due to its effectiveness in calming the central nervous system and managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
A nurse is reviewing the medical records of several older adult patients. The nurse determines that which individual would have the least chance of developing mental health problems with aging?
A. A man who is single, has an eighth grade education, and walks to the mailbox and back every day
B. A woman who is married with graduate education, eats nutritionally balanced meals, and exercises for 20 minutes each day
C. A man who is married, has a high school education, eats mostly fast food, and walks a mile each day
D. A woman who is single, has a college degree and watches what she eats but really does not exercise
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because being married, having a graduate education, eating nutritionally balanced meals, and exercising regularly are all factors associated with better mental health in older adults. Marriage can provide social support, a graduate education indicates cognitive stimulation, balanced nutrition supports brain health, and regular exercise promotes mental well-being.
Choice A is incorrect because having a low education level and limited physical activity increase the risk of mental health problems. Choice C is incorrect as consuming mostly fast food can negatively impact brain function. Choice D is incorrect because although watching what she eats is beneficial, the lack of exercise may increase the risk of developing mental health problems.
Which client statement reflects an understanding of the effect of circadian rhythms on a person?
A. When I dream about my mothers horrible train accident, I become hysterical. B. I get really irritable during my menstrual cycle.C. Im a morning person. I get my best work done in the a.m.
B. Every February, I tend to experience periods of sadness.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because the client statement "I'm a morning person. I get my best work done in the a.m." reflects an understanding of circadian rhythms. Circadian rhythms are the body's internal clock that regulates the sleep-wake cycle and influences energy levels and productivity throughout the day. Being a morning person indicates that this individual's peak productivity aligns with their body's natural circadian rhythm, which typically results in better performance during the morning hours.
Choice A is incorrect as it relates to a traumatic dream triggering hysteria, not circadian rhythms. Choice B is incorrect as it mentions experiencing sadness in February, which is more likely related to seasonal affective disorder rather than circadian rhythms.
A nurse is assessing a patient who is experiencing depression. Which of the following is a common symptom of depression?
A. Feelings of hopelessness and worthlessness
B. Excessive energy and restlessness
C. Rapid speech and racing thoughts
D. Increased appetite and weight gain
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Feelings of hopelessness and worthlessness. This is a common symptom of depression as individuals with depression often experience persistent negative thoughts about themselves and their situation. This symptom is a key indicator used in diagnosing depression.
B: Excessive energy and restlessness is not a common symptom of depression. In fact, individuals with depression often experience fatigue and lack of energy.
C: Rapid speech and racing thoughts are more commonly associated with conditions like mania or anxiety disorders, not depression.
D: Increased appetite and weight gain can be a symptom of atypical depression, but it is not a common symptom of depression in general. Weight changes can vary among individuals with depression.
A 4-year-old grabs toys from other children and says, "I want that now!" From a psychoanalytic perspective, this behavior is a product of impulses originating in which system of the personality?
A. Id
B. Ego
C. Superego
D. Preconscious
Correct answer:
Step 1: The behavior of grabbing toys impulsively and demanding them immediately reflects primitive, instinctual desires.
Step 2: The Id, as per psychoanalytic theory by Freud, operates on the pleasure principle, seeking immediate gratification of basic needs and desires.
Step 3: The Id is present from birth and represents innate drives such as hunger, aggression, and pleasure.
Step 4: In this scenario, the child's impulsive and immediate desire for toys aligns with the characteristics of the Id.
Summary: The other choices are incorrect because the Ego focuses on reality and mediates between the Id and Superego, the Superego represents internalized societal norms and values, and the Preconscious is part of the mind that holds thoughts not currently in awareness.
RN exams mental health practice questions, set 44 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
