You choose the therapeutic response, the safety priority, and the cue that means the patient is getting worse. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five mental health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes who is having a hard time managing blood glucose levels. Using Bronfenbrenner's Socio-Ecological Model, which factor would the nurse identify as most likely contributing to the client's difficulty managing their diabetes at the exosystem level?
A. Limited access to healthy food options
B. Family history of diabetes
C. Sedentary job
D. Lack of reliable transportation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Limited access to healthy food options
The correct answer is A: Limited access to healthy food options. At the exosystem level of Bronfenbrenner's model, environmental factors impact individuals indirectly. Limited access to healthy food options can hinder the client's ability to make nutritious choices, leading to poor blood glucose management. This factor influences the client's social and physical environment, contributing significantly to their difficulty in managing diabetes.
Summary:
B: Family history of diabetes is at the microsystem level, involving direct relationships and interactions. While it may predispose the client to diabetes, it does not directly affect their current struggles with managing blood glucose levels.
C: Sedentary job is also at the microsystem level and can impact physical activity but is not as influential in blood glucose management as access to healthy food.
D: Lack of reliable transportation is at the mesosystem level, involving connections between microsystems. While it can affect access to healthcare, it is not as directly related to dietary choices impacting blood glucose levels.
Question 2
Consultation occurs most often during which phase of the nursing process?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Planning
D. Evaluation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Planning
Consultation most often occurs during the Planning phase of the nursing process. During this phase, the nurse collaborates with other healthcare professionals to develop a comprehensive plan of care for the patient. This involves seeking input, advice, and expertise from various team members to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient. The Planning phase is where all the gathered information from the Assessment phase is synthesized and used to create specific interventions and goals for the patient. Consultation helps in refining the plan and ensuring that it aligns with evidence-based practices and interdisciplinary perspectives.
Summary of other choices:
A: Assessment - Involves collecting data about the patient's health status. Consultation typically happens after the assessment phase.
B: Diagnosis - Involves analyzing data to identify health problems. Consultation is not primarily focused on making a diagnosis.
D: Evaluation - Involves assessing the effectiveness of the care plan. Consultation is more focused on developing the plan rather than evaluating it.
Question 3
A female client is diagnosed with panic disorder. The client tells the nurse that she hasn't left her house in more than a month because she was afraid of another attack. She visited the mental health clinic today only because her son brought her. Which nursing diagnosis would be a priority for this client?
A. Powerlessness related to symptoms of anxiety
B. Decisional Conflict related to fear of leaving the house
C. Ineffective Family Coping related to symptoms of anxiety
D. Social Isolation related to fear of recurrence of anxiety symptoms
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Social Isolation related to fear of recurrence of anxiety symptoms
The correct answer is D: Social Isolation related to fear of recurrence of anxiety symptoms. This is the priority nursing diagnosis for the client because her inability to leave the house due to fear of another panic attack has led to significant social isolation. This isolation can exacerbate her anxiety and impact her overall well-being. By addressing social isolation, the nurse can help the client reconnect with the community and support systems, which is crucial for managing panic disorder.
Choice A (Powerlessness related to symptoms of anxiety) is incorrect because while the client may feel powerless, the immediate concern is the social isolation impacting her daily functioning. Choice B (Decisional Conflict related to fear of leaving the house) is incorrect as the client's issue is more about the consequences of not leaving the house rather than a decisional conflict. Choice C (Ineffective Family Coping related to symptoms of anxiety) is also incorrect as the focus should be on the client's own coping mechanisms and isolation rather than the family's coping strategies.
Question 4
You notice that you look forward to talking to Becky because her dark sense of humor reminds you of your best friend in high school. You also begin to make little cynical jokes, hoping to have a good laugh together. What is this relationship showing early signs of?
A. Accountability
B. Self-reflection
C. Transference
D. Countertransference
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Countertransference
The correct answer is D: Countertransference. This relationship shows early signs of countertransference because the individual is projecting feelings and attitudes from their past relationship with their best friend onto Becky. The individual's desire to joke and laugh with Becky based on similarities to their best friend in high school indicates a potential unconscious emotional response. Countertransference occurs when the therapist or individual develops feelings or reactions towards the client based on their own unresolved issues or past experiences. In this scenario, the individual is experiencing countertransference by transferring emotions related to their best friend onto Becky. This can potentially impact the objectivity and effectiveness of the relationship.
Summary:
A: Accountability - Not relevant to the scenario.
B: Self-reflection - Not applicable as the individual is not reflecting on their own behavior.
C: Transference - Different from countertransference, as transference refers to the client projecting feelings onto the therapist, not the other way around.
Question 5
A nurse wants to find information on current evidence-based research, programs, and practices regarding mental illness and addictions. Which resource should the nurse consult?
A. American Psychiatric Association
B. American Psychological Association (APA)
C. Clinician's Quick Guide to Interpersonal Psychotherapy
D. Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA)
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA)
The correct answer is D: Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA). SAMHSA is the best resource for evidence-based research, programs, and practices on mental illness and addictions as it is the leading agency in the U.S. for improving behavioral health. SAMHSA provides up-to-date information, guidelines, and resources based on scientific research and best practices. It focuses specifically on mental health and substance abuse issues, making it the most relevant and reliable source for the nurse's needs.
A: The American Psychiatric Association focuses more on the professional organization for psychiatrists rather than providing specific resources on evidence-based research and programs.
B: The American Psychological Association is more focused on psychology-related research and practices, not specifically on mental illness and addictions.
C: The Clinician's Quick Guide to Interpersonal Psychotherapy is a specific resource on a therapy approach, which may not cover the broad range of information the nurse is seeking on mental illness and addictions.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
The nurse has just admitted Nancy to the psychiatric unit. The psychiatrist has diagnosed Nancy with major depressive disorder. The nurse says to Nancy, 'Please tell me what it was like when you were growing up.' Which nursing role described by Peplau is the nurse fulfilling in this instance?
A. Surrogate
B. Resource person
C. Counselor
D. Technical Expert
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Counselor. In this scenario, the nurse is fulfilling the role of a counselor by engaging Nancy in a therapeutic conversation to explore her past experiences and emotions related to her major depressive disorder diagnosis. This role focuses on providing emotional support, guidance, and facilitating self-exploration.
A: Surrogate - This role involves temporarily standing in for another person. In this scenario, the nurse is not acting as a stand-in for anyone but is providing direct emotional support to Nancy.
B: Resource person - This role involves providing information and guidance related to the patient's care. While the nurse may provide resources and information, the primary focus in this scenario is on emotional support and therapeutic communication.
D: Technical Expert - This role involves providing specialized knowledge and skills related to patient care. While the nurse may use technical expertise in other aspects of care, in this scenario, the focus is on therapeutic communication and emotional support rather than technical knowledge.
Consultation occurs most often during which phase of the nursing process?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Planning
D. Evaluation
Correct answer:
Consultation most often occurs during the Planning phase of the nursing process. During this phase, the nurse collaborates with other healthcare professionals to develop a comprehensive plan of care for the patient. This involves seeking input, advice, and expertise from various team members to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient. The Planning phase is where all the gathered information from the Assessment phase is synthesized and used to create specific interventions and goals for the patient. Consultation helps in refining the plan and ensuring that it aligns with evidence-based practices and interdisciplinary perspectives.
Summary of other choices:
A: Assessment - Involves collecting data about the patient's health status. Consultation typically happens after the assessment phase.
B: Diagnosis - Involves analyzing data to identify health problems. Consultation is not primarily focused on making a diagnosis.
D: Evaluation - Involves assessing the effectiveness of the care plan. Consultation is more focused on developing the plan rather than evaluating it.
Schemata, automatic thoughts, and cognitive distortions are terms that relate to:
A. rational-emotive behavioral therapy.
B. cognitive-behavioral therapy.
C. operant conditioning theory.
D. biofeedback.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: cognitive-behavioral therapy. Schemata, automatic thoughts, and cognitive distortions are key concepts in cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). CBT focuses on identifying and challenging maladaptive thoughts and beliefs to change behaviors and emotions. Schemata are core beliefs about oneself and the world, automatic thoughts are quick, unconscious thoughts that influence emotions, and cognitive distortions are irrational thought patterns. These concepts are central to the cognitive restructuring process in CBT. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically address the cognitive processes and techniques used in CBT. Rational-emotive behavioral therapy (Choice A) focuses on identifying and challenging irrational beliefs, but it does not emphasize cognitive restructuring to the same extent as CBT. Operant conditioning theory (Choice C) focuses on behavior modification through reinforcement and punishment, while biofeedback (Choice D) is a technique used to help individuals learn to control physiological processes through feedback.
Schemata, automatic thoughts, and cognitive distortions are terms that relate to:
A. rational-emotive behavioral therapy.
B. cognitive-behavioral therapy.
C. operant conditioning theory.
D. biofeedback.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: cognitive-behavioral therapy. Schemata, automatic thoughts, and cognitive distortions are key concepts in cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). CBT focuses on identifying and challenging maladaptive thoughts and beliefs to change behaviors and emotions. Schemata are core beliefs about oneself and the world, automatic thoughts are quick, unconscious thoughts that influence emotions, and cognitive distortions are irrational thought patterns. These concepts are central to the cognitive restructuring process in CBT. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically address the cognitive processes and techniques used in CBT. Rational-emotive behavioral therapy (Choice A) focuses on identifying and challenging irrational beliefs, but it does not emphasize cognitive restructuring to the same extent as CBT. Operant conditioning theory (Choice C) focuses on behavior modification through reinforcement and punishment, while biofeedback (Choice D) is a technique used to help individuals learn to control physiological processes through feedback.
Dave tries to follow the safety protocols on the rig as much as possible because he knows he would feel terrible if a coworker was injured due to something stupid that Dave did or forgot to do. What type of extrinsic motivation is represented in this example?
A. external regulation
B. introjected regulation
C. identified regulation
D. integrated regulation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: identified regulation. In this scenario, Dave is motivated by a sense of personal importance and alignment with his values and beliefs. Identified regulation involves engaging in a behavior because it is personally meaningful and consistent with one's identity. Dave's motivation stems from a genuine concern for his coworker's safety and a desire to uphold safety protocols for ethical reasons.
Incorrect options:
A: External regulation - This involves performing a behavior to receive a reward or avoid punishment, which is not the case for Dave.
B: Introjected regulation - This type of motivation involves engaging in a behavior to avoid guilt or attain ego-enhancement. Dave's motivation goes beyond this as he is driven by a deeper sense of responsibility.
D: Integrated regulation - This level of motivation involves behaviors that are fully assimilated into one's sense of self, which may not fully align with Dave's scenario as he is primarily focused on the consequences of his actions on others rather than internalizing the behavior completely.
The following events are important in the development of psychiatric-mental health nursing practice. Which event occurred first?
A. Publication of Standards of Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing by the ANA
B. Publication of Standards of Child and Adolescent Psychiatric and Mental Health Nursing Practice
C. Establishment of the first graduate program in psychiatric nursing at Rutgers University
D. Publication of the first psychiatric nursing text, Nursing Mental Disease, by Harriet Bailey
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because the publication of the first psychiatric nursing text, "Nursing Mental Disease" by Harriet Bailey, represents the foundational development of psychiatric-mental health nursing practice. This event predates the other choices and laid the groundwork for the field. The other choices occurred later in the timeline of psychiatric-mental health nursing practice.
A: Publication of Standards of Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing by the ANA - This event would have come after the publication of the first psychiatric nursing text and reflects the establishment of standardized practices in the field.
B: Publication of Standards of Child and Adolescent Psychiatric and Mental Health Nursing Practice - This event is more specialized and would have developed after the broader standards of psychiatric-mental health nursing were established.
C: Establishment of the first graduate program in psychiatric nursing at Rutgers University - The development of a graduate program typically follows the establishment of foundational texts and standards in a field.
Dave tries to follow the safety protocols on the rig as much as possible because he knows he would feel terrible if a coworker was injured due to something stupid that Dave did or forgot to do. What type of extrinsic motivation is represented in this example?
A. external regulation
B. introjected regulation
C. identified regulation
D. integrated regulation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: identified regulation. In this scenario, Dave is motivated by a sense of personal importance and alignment with his values and beliefs. Identified regulation involves engaging in a behavior because it is personally meaningful and consistent with one's identity. Dave's motivation stems from a genuine concern for his coworker's safety and a desire to uphold safety protocols for ethical reasons.
Incorrect options:
A: External regulation - This involves performing a behavior to receive a reward or avoid punishment, which is not the case for Dave.
B: Introjected regulation - This type of motivation involves engaging in a behavior to avoid guilt or attain ego-enhancement. Dave's motivation goes beyond this as he is driven by a deeper sense of responsibility.
D: Integrated regulation - This level of motivation involves behaviors that are fully assimilated into one's sense of self, which may not fully align with Dave's scenario as he is primarily focused on the consequences of his actions on others rather than internalizing the behavior completely.
The therapeutic action of neurotransmitter inhibitors that block reuptake cause
A. decreased concentration of the blocked neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.
B. increased concentration of the blocked neurotransmitter in the synaptic gap.
C. destruction of receptor sites specific to the blocked neurotransmitter.
D. limbic system stimulation.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: increased concentration of the blocked neurotransmitter in the synaptic gap. When neurotransmitter inhibitors block reuptake, they prevent the reabsorption of neurotransmitters by the presynaptic neuron, leading to more neurotransmitters remaining in the synaptic gap. This increased concentration enhances neurotransmission and can help alleviate symptoms associated with neurotransmitter deficiencies.
A: decreased concentration of the blocked neurotransmitter in the central nervous system - This is incorrect because blocking reuptake leads to an increased concentration of neurotransmitter in the synaptic gap, not a decrease in the central nervous system.
C: destruction of receptor sites specific to the blocked neurotransmitter - This is incorrect because blocking reuptake does not affect receptor sites; it primarily impacts the reuptake process.
D: limbic system stimulation - This is incorrect because blocking reuptake does not directly stimulate the limbic system; its primary effect is on neurotransmitter levels in the synaptic gap.
Two nursing students are discussing psychiatric-mental health nursing and the role it has played in nursing's overall history. Which statement is most accurate?
A. The importance of using therapeutic communication was stressed by Nightingale.
B. The use of self-care to enhance the immune system was taught by Dorothea Dix.
C. The moral treatment of mental illness was a primary focus of deinstitutionalization.
D. Peplau was the first nurse to stress the importance of therapeutic communication.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: The importance of using therapeutic communication was stressed by Nightingale. Florence Nightingale, considered the founder of modern nursing, emphasized the significance of therapeutic communication in nursing practice. Nightingale's focus was on creating an environment conducive to healing through effective communication with patients.
Explanation: Nightingale's emphasis on therapeutic communication laid the foundation for psychiatric-mental health nursing.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The use of self-care to enhance the immune system was taught by Dorothea Dix. Dorothea Dix was a mental health advocate, not known for teaching self-care to enhance the immune system.
C: The moral treatment of mental illness was a primary focus of deinstitutionalization. Deinstitutionalization aimed to shift care from mental hospitals to community-based settings, not primarily focusing on moral treatment.
D: Peplau was the first nurse to stress the importance of therapeutic communication. While Peplau made significant contributions to psychiatric nursing, Night
A client has been involuntarily committed to a psychiatric unit. During the delivery of the evening dinner trays, the client elopes from the unit, gets on a bus, and crosses into a neighboring state. Which nursing intervention is appropriate in this situation?
A. Call the psychiatric facility located in the neighboring state and attempt to have that facility involuntarily admit the client.
B. Notify the client's physician, follow facility policy, document the incident, and review elopement precautions.
C. Send a therapeutic assistant out to relocate the client and bring him or her back to the facility.
D. Notify the police in the neighboring state and have them pick the client up and readmit the client to the facility.
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Notify the client's physician: It is crucial to inform the client's physician immediately about the elopement to ensure appropriate medical oversight.
2. Follow facility policy: Following established protocols is essential to manage the situation effectively and maintain the client's safety.
3. Document the incident: Detailed documentation is necessary for legal and clinical purposes to track the event's specifics and subsequent actions taken.
4. Review elopement precautions: By reviewing and potentially updating elopement prevention strategies, the facility can enhance security measures to prevent future incidents.
Summary:
A: Involuntarily admitting the client to another facility without proper evaluation and consent is not appropriate and may violate the client's rights.
C: Sending a therapeutic assistant alone to retrieve the client can be unsafe and may not address the underlying reasons for elopement.
D: Involving the police in another state could escalate the situation and may not prioritize the client's mental health needs.
RN exams mental health practice questions, set 4 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.