You choose the therapeutic response, the safety priority, and the cue that means the patient is getting worse. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five mental health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A 22-year-old college student was involved in an automobile accident that resulted in permanent cognitive and physical disability. The client feels guilty about his friend's death in the accident. Which of the following would be a priority assessment for this client?
A. Risk for suicide
B. Level of depression
C. Social support systems
D. Financial status
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Risk for suicide
Correct Answer: A - Risk for suicide
Rationale: Given the client's feelings of guilt and the significant life-altering consequences of the accident, assessing the risk for suicide is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Suicidal ideation may be present due to overwhelming guilt and disability.
Summary of other choices:
B: Level of depression - While important, assessing depression is secondary to assessing the immediate risk of suicide in this scenario.
C: Social support systems - While social support is important, assessing the risk for suicide takes precedence in this high-risk situation.
D: Financial status - While financial concerns may be relevant, they are not the priority in this case where the client's mental health and safety are at stake.
Question 2
An immigrant from China needs a colonic resection but is anxious and reluctant about surgery. This patient usually follows traditional Chinese health practices. Which comment by the nurse would most likely reduce the patient’s anxiety and reluctance?
A. "Surgery will help rebalance the yin and yang forces and return you to harmony.”
B. "The surgery we are recommending will help you achieve final transformation.”
C. "I know this is new to you, but you can trust us to take very good care of you.”
D. "If you would like, we could investigate using acupuncture to help control pain.”
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — "Surgery will help rebalance the yin and yang forces and return you to harmony.”
The correct answer is A because it appeals to the patient's traditional Chinese beliefs by mentioning yin and yang forces and harmony, which are important concepts in traditional Chinese medicine. This can help the patient feel more comfortable and reassured about the surgery.
Choice B is incorrect because it uses vague language about "final transformation" which may not resonate with the patient's cultural beliefs.
Choice C is incorrect because while it offers reassurance, it does not address the patient's specific cultural background or concerns about the surgery.
Choice D is incorrect because while acupuncture may be a valid option, it does not directly address the patient's anxiety and reluctance towards surgery based on their traditional health practices.
Question 3
Which neurotransmitter is primarily implicated in the development of schizophrenia?
A. Serotonin
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Acetylcholine
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Dopamine
The correct answer is dopamine. Dopamine dysregulation is a key factor in the development of schizophrenia. Excess dopamine activity in certain brain regions is associated with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Dopaminergic medications that reduce dopamine levels are often used to manage these symptoms, further supporting the role of dopamine in schizophrenia. Serotonin (Choice A) is more commonly associated with mood regulation and is implicated in depression and anxiety disorders. Norepinephrine (Choice B) is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response and is linked to conditions like anxiety and PTSD. Acetylcholine (Choice D) plays a role in muscle movement and memory but is not primarily implicated in schizophrenia.
Question 4
An older male patient has suffered with episodic pruritus and skin eruptions for over 2 years. This patient tells the nurse, “When my skin gets better for a few days, I start worrying that it's going to start itching again soon. I think my worry may actually trigger the problems to start all over again.†Which self-help technique should the nurse consider suggesting for this patient?
A. Melatonin
B. Meditation
C. Purification
D. Acupuncture
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Meditation
The correct answer is B: Meditation. Meditation can help the patient manage stress and anxiety, which are known triggers for pruritus and skin eruptions. By practicing mindfulness and relaxation techniques, the patient can reduce the psychological impact of worrying about their condition, leading to potential improvement in their symptoms.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Melatonin is a hormone that regulates sleep-wake cycles and may not directly address the patient's psychological stress.
C: Purification is a vague term and does not offer a specific technique to help the patient manage their worry and stress.
D: Acupuncture may have benefits for certain conditions, but it may not specifically address the patient's psychological concerns related to their skin issues.
Question 5
What is one nursing assistant responsibility during the admission of a new resident?
A. The NA should make sure the resident unpacks all of his personal items right away.
B. The NA should give the resident a physical exam to help with care plan formulation.
C. The NA should explain how the bed controls and the call light work.
D. The NA should discuss the resident's advance directive choices with the resident and his family.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — The NA should explain how the bed controls and the call light work.
The correct answer is C because explaining how the bed controls and the call light work is essential for ensuring the safety and comfort of the new resident. By understanding how to use these tools, the resident can easily call for assistance and adjust the bed position as needed. This information empowers the resident to communicate effectively with the nursing staff and promotes their independence.
Choice A is incorrect because unpacking personal items is not a primary responsibility during admission. Choice B is incorrect as nursing assistants are not qualified to give physical exams for care plan formulation. Choice D is incorrect as discussing advance directive choices is typically the responsibility of the nurse or social worker, not the nursing assistant.
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Question 6
What assessment question is focused on identifying a long-term consequence of chronic stress on physical health?
A. Do you have any problems with sleeping well?
B. How many infections have you experienced in the past 6 months?
C. How much moderate exercise do you engage in on a regular basis?
D. What management techniques to you regularly use to manage your stress?
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because asking about the number of infections in the past 6 months helps identify the impact of chronic stress on physical health. Chronic stress weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. The other choices focus on immediate symptoms or coping mechanisms for stress, not long-term consequences on physical health. Choice A relates to sleep issues, which can be a result of stress but not a direct consequence on physical health. Choice C focuses on exercise, which is important for overall health but may not directly address the impact of chronic stress. Choice D addresses stress management techniques, which are important for coping but do not directly assess the physical health consequences of chronic stress.
Which level of prevention activities would a nurse in an emergency department employ most often?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Preventive
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. In an emergency department, nurses focus on early detection and treatment of health issues to prevent complications. This aligns with secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat diseases in their early stages to prevent further harm. Primary prevention (A) focuses on preventing the onset of diseases, which is not the main role in an emergency department. Tertiary prevention (C) involves managing and reducing the impact of ongoing diseases, which is not the immediate priority in the emergency setting. Preventive activities (D) is a vague term that could encompass primary, secondary, or tertiary prevention efforts, but in this context, secondary prevention is the most relevant for emergency department nurses.
The nurse is caring for a 65-year-old woman who is undergoing diagnostic tests for a suspected stroke. When asked about her family medical history, the patient states that her father had a stroke. The nurse should:
A. Advise the patient to stop taking any medications she is currently using.
B. Reassure the patient that family history does not increase her risk of stroke.
C. Discuss the potential impact of her family history and encourage lifestyle changes to reduce her risk.
D. Recommend immediate surgery to prevent a stroke.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because discussing the potential impact of the patient's family history of stroke is crucial in understanding her risk factors. By encouraging lifestyle changes, such as maintaining a healthy diet and regular exercise, the nurse can help reduce the patient's risk of stroke. This approach aligns with preventive care and empowers the patient to take control of her health.
Choices A and D are incorrect because stopping medications or recommending immediate surgery without proper assessment and consultation with healthcare providers could be harmful and unnecessary. Choice B is incorrect as family history is a known risk factor for stroke, and it is essential to address this risk factor and educate the patient on how it may impact her health.
What assessment question is focused on identifying a long-term consequence of chronic stress on physical health?
A. Do you have any problems with sleeping well?
B. How many infections have you experienced in the past 6 months?
C. How much moderate exercise do you engage in on a regular basis?
D. What management techniques to you regularly use to manage your stress?
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because asking about the number of infections in the past 6 months helps identify the impact of chronic stress on physical health. Chronic stress weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. The other choices focus on immediate symptoms or coping mechanisms for stress, not long-term consequences on physical health. Choice A relates to sleep issues, which can be a result of stress but not a direct consequence on physical health. Choice C focuses on exercise, which is important for overall health but may not directly address the impact of chronic stress. Choice D addresses stress management techniques, which are important for coping but do not directly assess the physical health consequences of chronic stress.
The nurse has begun group counseling sessions for several hospitalized patients in the psychiatric facility. Which of the following would be most effective for the nurse to do to promote group cohesiveness?
A. Use team-building exercises.
B. Encourage task completion by members.
C. Spend time with each member individually.
D. Be consistent with the group themes.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Use team-building exercises. Team-building exercises help foster trust, communication, and camaraderie among group members, promoting group cohesiveness. By engaging in activities that require collaboration and problem-solving, group members can develop a sense of unity and support for each other.
Option B: Encouraging task completion focuses more on achieving goals rather than building relationships, which may not necessarily enhance group cohesiveness. Option C: Spending time individually with each member may lead to unequal attention and could hinder the development of group dynamics. Option D: Being consistent with group themes is important but may not directly contribute to promoting group cohesiveness as team-building exercises do.
A newly admitted patient diagnosed with major depression has gained 20 pounds over a few months and has suicidal ideation. The patient has taken an antidepressant medication for 1 week without remission of symptoms. Select the priority nursing diagnosis.
A. Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements.
B. Chronic low self-esteem.
C. Risk for suicide.
D. Hopelessness.
Correct answer:
The priority nursing diagnosis in this case is C: Risk for suicide. This is because the patient is exhibiting suicidal ideation, which poses an immediate threat to their safety and well-being. Suicidal ideation requires urgent intervention to ensure the patient's safety. The patient's major depression, weight gain, and lack of symptom remission from the antidepressant medication further emphasize the seriousness of the situation. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority in this scenario as they do not address the immediate risk of harm to the patient. Imbalanced nutrition and chronic low self-esteem are important concerns but do not take precedence over the risk of suicide. Hopelessness, while relevant, is not as urgent as addressing the immediate risk of suicide.
A client living on the beachfront seeks help with an extreme fear of crossing bridges, which interferes with daily life. A psychiatric nurse practitioner decides to try systematic desensitization. Which explanation of this therapy should the nurse convey to the client?
A. Using your imagination, we will attempt to achieve a state of relaxation that you can replicate when faced with crossing a bridge.
B. Because anxiety and relaxation are mutually exclusive states, we can attempt to substitute a relaxation response for the anxiety response.
C. Through a series of increasingly anxiety-provoking steps, we will gradually increase your tolerance to anxiety.
D. In one intense session, you will be exposed to a maximum level of anxiety that you will learn to tolerate.
Correct answer:
Systematic desensitization is a type of behavior therapy that is commonly used to treat phobias, including a fear of crossing bridges. The therapy involves exposing the individual to the feared object or situation in a gradual and systematic manner. By starting with less anxiety-provoking steps and gradually progressing to more anxiety-inducing steps, the individual can learn to manage their fear response and increase their tolerance to anxiety. This approach helps the client to confront their fears in a controlled and manageable way, allowing them to eventually overcome their phobia. Therefore, the explanation that should be conveyed to the client is that through a series of increasingly anxiety-provoking steps, their tolerance to anxiety will gradually increase.
An adolescent with a history of bipolar disorder is hospitalized during a manic episode. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to include in the care plan?
A. Encourage high levels of physical activity.
B. Provide a quiet and structured environment.
C. Engage the client in creative arts activities.
D. Allow the client to make decisions about their schedule.
Correct answer:
During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may experience heightened energy levels, decreased need for sleep, and racing thoughts. Providing a quiet and structured environment is crucial in managing these symptoms as it helps reduce external stimuli, prevent overstimulation, and promote a sense of calmness. Encouraging high levels of physical activity may exacerbate the manic symptoms by further increasing stimulation and excitement. Engaging the client in creative arts activities might be beneficial during stable periods but may not be the most appropriate intervention during a manic episode. Allowing the client to make decisions about their schedule could potentially lead to impulsivity and poor judgment, which are common characteristics of mania.
A client presents in the emergency department with complaints of overwhelming anxiety. Which of the following is a priority for the nurse to assess?
A. Risk for suicide
B. Cardiac status
C. Current stressors
D. Substance use history
Correct answer:
When a client presents with overwhelming anxiety, assessing the risk for suicide is a top priority for the nurse. Severe anxiety can lead to a heightened risk of suicidal ideation or behavior. It is crucial to assess the client's current mental state, thoughts of self-harm, and any past history of suicide attempts to ensure appropriate interventions are implemented promptly. Assessing for suicide risk allows for the implementation of safety measures and the initiation of further mental health evaluation and support as needed. While assessing cardiac status, current stressors, and substance use history are important aspects of care, in this situation, the immediate concern is to assess and address the client's risk for suicide to ensure their safety and well-being.
The central sulcus separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe. This boundary is crucial for the organization of motor and sensory functions in the brain. The frontal lobe is responsible for higher cognitive functions and motor activities, while the parietal lobe processes sensory information such as touch and spatial awareness. Therefore, the central sulcus plays a key role in coordinating motor and sensory functions.
Incorrect Choices:
A: The temporal and occipital lobes are separated by the lateral sulcus, not the central sulcus.
C: Complex motor activities are primarily controlled by the frontal lobe, not the central sulcus.
D: Alertness to the environment is regulated by brainstem structures and the reticular activating system, not the central sulcus.
RN exams mental health practice questions, set 43 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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