You choose the therapeutic response, the safety priority, and the cue that means the patient is getting worse. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five mental health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
What is the most appropriate intervention for the school nurse to implement to promote a healthy school environment?
A. Advocate for nutritious school lunch programs
B. Provide care for children with asthma
C. Develop individualized health plans
D. Educate students and families about screening for scoliosis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Advocate for nutritious school lunch programs
The correct answer is A: Advocate for nutritious school lunch programs. This intervention promotes a healthy school environment by ensuring students have access to nutritious meals, which are essential for their overall health and well-being. By advocating for nutritious school lunch programs, the school nurse can help improve students' physical health, cognitive functioning, and overall academic performance. This intervention also aligns with the school nurse's role in promoting preventive health measures.
Summary:
B: Providing care for children with asthma is important but does not address the broader goal of promoting a healthy school environment.
C: Developing individualized health plans is beneficial for specific students but may not impact the overall school environment.
D: Educating students and families about screening for scoliosis is important for early detection but does not directly contribute to creating a healthy school environment.
Question 2
A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Encourage the client to avoid physical activity.
B. Encourage the client to engage in social activities.
C. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
D. Encourage the client to set realistic goals.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
Encouraging the client to participate in group therapy is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode. Group therapy provides a supportive environment where the client can share experiences, learn coping strategies, and receive emotional support from peers and mental health professionals. It can help reduce feelings of isolation, improve social skills, and enhance overall well-being. Group therapy also promotes a sense of belonging and understanding, which are essential for individuals dealing with bipolar disorder and depressive symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are not the most appropriate interventions for a client experiencing a depressive episode in bipolar disorder. Encouraging the client to avoid physical activity may worsen their symptoms, promoting social activities may not address the underlying issues effectively, and setting goals may be overwhelming during a depressive episode.
Question 3
A 76-year-old patient who is determined to be a poor 2D6 metabolizer is being prescribed vortioxetine for his depression. What does the PMHNP need to remember when prescribing this drug?
A. The dosage of the drug will need to be increased
B. The dosage needs to begin at half then increase over a 2-week period
C. The dosage should not exceed ½ of the usual recommended dose
D. An adjunct medication will need to be prescribed until the dosage can be reduced
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — The dosage should not exceed ½ of the usual recommended dose
The correct answer is C: The dosage should not exceed ½ of the usual recommended dose. Vortioxetine is primarily metabolized by the CYP2D6 enzyme. In poor 2D6 metabolizers, the metabolism of vortioxetine is significantly reduced, leading to higher drug levels in the body. Therefore, to prevent potential adverse effects or toxicity, the dosage should be reduced to avoid exceeding the usual recommended dose.
A: The dosage of the drug will need to be increased - Incorrect. Due to reduced metabolism in poor 2D6 metabolizers, increasing the dosage would lead to higher drug levels and increased risk of adverse effects.
B: The dosage needs to begin at half then increase over a 2-week period - Incorrect. Starting at half the dose is not sufficient for poor metabolizers as they may still experience increased drug levels.
D: An adjunct medication will need to be prescribed until the dosage can be reduced - Incorrect. Adding another medication is not necessary
Question 4
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been under severe stress while caring for her elderly mother who is in the advanced stages of Alzheimer's disease. The nurse explains that the patient is adapting to the stress she is experiencing because of which of the following?
A. Ability to survive in the midst of severe stress
B. Acceptance of others'help in caring for her mother
C. Success at being able to solve problems
D. Capability in setting reasonable personal goals
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Ability to survive in the midst of severe stress
Correct Answer: A: Ability to survive in the midst of severe stress
Rationale:
1. The patient is under severe stress due to caring for her mother with Alzheimer's disease.
2. Adaptation to stress involves the ability to survive and cope with challenging situations.
3. Surviving severe stress indicates the patient's resilience and ability to endure difficult circumstances.
4. This choice best reflects the patient's capacity to manage and withstand the stress she is facing.
Summary:
B: Acceptance of others' help in caring for her mother - This choice focuses on receiving help from others, which may not directly relate to the patient's ability to adapt to stress.
C: Success at being able to solve problems - While problem-solving skills are valuable, adaptation to stress goes beyond just solving problems.
D: Capability in setting reasonable personal goals - Setting goals is important but may not directly address the patient's adaptation to severe stress.
Question 5
Some lifetime habits and hobbies affect postoperative respiratory function. If your client smokes 3 packs of cigarettes a day for the past 10 years, you will anticipate increased risk for:
A. perioperative anxiety and stress
B. delayed coagulation time
C. delayed wound healing
D. postoperative respiratory function
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — postoperative respiratory function
The correct answer is D: postoperative respiratory function. Smoking 3 packs of cigarettes a day for 10 years can lead to respiratory issues such as decreased lung function, increased risk of respiratory infections, and impaired wound healing due to reduced oxygen levels in the blood. This will negatively impact postoperative respiratory function, making it harder for the client to recover and potentially leading to complications like pneumonia.
A: Perioperative anxiety and stress are not directly related to smoking habits but can be influenced by various factors such as fear of surgery or anesthesia.
B: Delayed coagulation time is more related to factors like medication use or underlying medical conditions affecting blood clotting, not smoking habit.
C: Delayed wound healing can be affected by smoking due to reduced blood flow and oxygen delivery, but it is not the primary concern in this scenario compared to postoperative respiratory function.
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Question 6
Epidemiological studies contribute to improvements in care for individuals with mental disorders by:
A. Providing information about effective nursing techniques.
B. Identifying risk factors that contribute to the development of a disorder.
C. Identifying individuals in the general population who will develop a specific disorder.
D. Identifying which individuals will respond favorably to a specific treatment.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Identifying risk factors that contribute to the development of a disorder. Epidemiological studies help identify factors such as genetics, environment, and lifestyle that increase the likelihood of developing mental disorders. Understanding these risk factors allows for early intervention and prevention strategies.
A: Providing information about effective nursing techniques is not the primary focus of epidemiological studies, which are more concerned with identifying patterns and causes of diseases.
C: Identifying individuals in the general population who will develop a specific disorder is not the main purpose of epidemiological studies, as they focus on identifying risk factors rather than predicting individual outcomes.
D: Identifying which individuals will respond favorably to a specific treatment is important but not the primary goal of epidemiological studies, which are more focused on population-level data and trends.
A 20 year old male is brought to the hospital approximately 30 minutes after being stabbed in the chest. There is a 3cm wound just medial to the left nipple. His BP is 70/33 and HR is 140. Neck and arm veins are distende Breath sounds are normal. Heart sounds are diminished, IV access has been established and warm crystalloid is infusing. The next most important aspect of immediate management is:
A. "CT scan of the chest"
B. "12 lead ECG"
C. "FAST exam"
D. "Begin infusion of RBCs"
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: "FAST exam." In this scenario, the patient presents with signs of hypovolemic shock following a chest stab wound. The FAST exam (Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma) is crucial for rapid identification of intra-abdominal bleeding, which can occur concurrently with thoracic injuries. It is a quick and non-invasive bedside ultrasound assessment that can detect free fluid in the pericardial, pleural, and peritoneal spaces. Identifying intra-abdominal bleeding is important as it may require emergent surgical intervention to prevent further deterioration.
Choice A, "CT scan of the chest," would take more time and is not the immediate priority in a hemodynamically unstable patient. Choice B, "12 lead ECG," is important in assessing for cardiac injury but is not the most critical step in this scenario. Choice D, "Begin infusion of RBCs," may be necessary later but addressing the source of bleeding and volume status through
A nurse is planning discharge teaching for cord care for the parent of a newborn. Which instructions would you include in the teaching?
A. Contact provider if the cord still turns black (it's going to turn black)
B. Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily (clean with neutral pH cleanser)
C. Keep the cord dry until it falls off (cord should be kept clean and dry to prevent infection)
D. The cord stump will fall off in five days (cord falls off in 10-14 days)
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Keep the cord dry until it falls off. This is the correct instruction for cord care as it helps prevent infection. Keeping the cord dry creates an environment that is less conducive to bacterial growth. Moisture can lead to bacterial growth and increase the risk of infection. By keeping the cord clean and dry, the parent can help promote healing and prevent complications.
The other choices are incorrect:
A: Contact provider if the cord still turns black - The cord naturally darkens and dries up as it heals, so it turning black is a normal part of the healing process.
B: Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily - Hydrogen peroxide can be too harsh and may delay healing. Using a neutral pH cleanser is a better choice for cord care.
D: The cord stump will fall off in five days - The cord typically falls off between 10-14 days after birth, so this instruction is inaccurate and may lead to unrealistic expectations.
The parents of an 8-year-old are attempting to help their child comprehend new information. Which intervention suggested by the nurse shows an understanding of the cognitive development theory for this age group?
A. The use of drawing and illustrations
B. Comparing the child’s experiences to the new material
C. Encouraging the child to talk about this new information
D. Asking the child to give a reason for how they feel about new information
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Comparing the child’s experiences to the new material. At the age of 8, children are in the concrete operational stage according to Piaget's cognitive development theory. This stage is characterized by the ability to think logically about concrete events and understand the concept of conservation. By comparing the child's experiences to the new material, the parents are helping the child make connections between what they already know and the new information, which facilitates understanding. Drawing and illustrations (choice A) are helpful for visual learners but may not necessarily tap into the child's cognitive development stage. Encouraging the child to talk about new information (choice C) is beneficial for communication skills but may not directly address cognitive development. Asking the child to give a reason for how they feel about new information (choice D) focuses more on emotions rather than cognitive understanding.
Which is the most significant consequence of the excessive use of defense mechanisms?
A. Emotions will be experienced intensely.
B. Problem-solving will be limited.
C. The superego will be suppressed.
D. Learning and the ability to grow will be enhanced.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because excessive use of defense mechanisms can hinder problem-solving skills by avoiding facing reality and finding constructive solutions. Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals unconsciously use to cope with anxiety and protect the ego. By relying too heavily on these mechanisms, individuals may overlook important issues, leading to limited problem-solving abilities. This can result in difficulties in adapting to challenges and impede personal growth. Emotions being experienced intensely (A) is not the most significant consequence as it is a natural response to certain situations and does not directly relate to defense mechanisms. The superego being suppressed (C) is not a direct consequence of defense mechanisms but may occur as a result of unresolved conflicts. Learning and growth being enhanced (D) is incorrect as excessive defense mechanisms can actually hinder learning and personal development.
A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder has taken lithium carbonate (Lithane) for 1 year; this client presents in an emergency department with severe diarrhea, blurred vision, and tinnitus. The nurse should interpret these symptoms to be indicative of which of the following?
A. Consumption of foods high in tyramine
B. Common side effects of lithium carbonate
C. Lithium carbonate tolerance
D. Lithium carbonate toxicity
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Lithium carbonate toxicity. The symptoms of severe diarrhea, blurred vision, and tinnitus are indicative of lithium toxicity. Severe diarrhea can lead to dehydration, which can exacerbate lithium toxicity. Blurred vision and tinnitus are neurological symptoms associated with lithium toxicity. It is important for the nurse to recognize these symptoms as signs of lithium toxicity and take appropriate action.
A: Consumption of foods high in tyramine is not related to the symptoms described. Tyramine is not known to cause severe diarrhea, blurred vision, or tinnitus.
B: Common side effects of lithium carbonate typically include mild gastrointestinal upset, tremors, and increased thirst, not the severe symptoms described in the question.
C: Lithium carbonate tolerance refers to the body's ability to withstand higher doses of lithium over time. It does not present with the acute, severe symptoms described in the question.
During a one-on-one interaction with the nurse, a patient frequently looks nervously at the door. Select the best comment by the nurse regarding this nonverbal communication.
A. "I notice you keep looking toward the door."
B. "This is our time together. No one is going to interrupt us."
C. "It looks as if you are eager to end our discussion for today."
D. "If you are uncomfortable in this room, we can move someplace else."
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because it shows active listening and empathy by acknowledging the patient's nonverbal cue. By stating "I notice you keep looking toward the door," the nurse demonstrates understanding and opens up the opportunity for the patient to express any concerns or reasons for their behavior. This response validates the patient's feelings and encourages further communication.
Choice B is incorrect because it dismisses the patient's behavior and does not address the underlying issue of why the patient is looking toward the door.
Choice C is incorrect as it assumes the patient wants to end the discussion without confirming the patient's actual feelings or reasons for looking toward the door.
Choice D is incorrect because it jumps to a solution without first addressing the patient's nonverbal communication. It may not be the environment that is causing the discomfort, so moving may not be the best approach without further exploration.
A male patient reports to the nurse, 'I’m told I have memories of childhood abuse stored in my unconscious mind. I want to work on this.' Based on this statement, what information should the nurse provide the patient?
A. To seek the help of a trained therapist to help uncover and deal with the trauma associated with those memories.
B. How to use a defense mechanism such as suppression so that the memories will be less threatening.
C. Psychodynamic therapy will allow the surfacing of those unconscious memories to occur in just a few sessions.
D. Group sessions are valuable to identify underlying themes of the memories being suppressed.
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Seeking the help of a trained therapist is crucial for handling childhood abuse memories stored in the unconscious mind. A therapist can provide a safe space, guidance, and support to explore and process these traumatic memories. Working with a therapist trained in trauma therapy techniques can help the patient navigate the emotional challenges and develop coping strategies. Therapeutic intervention is essential for addressing the impact of childhood abuse on mental health and well-being.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Using defense mechanisms like suppression can lead to avoidance and may not address the root cause of the trauma.
C: Psychodynamic therapy takes time and multiple sessions to explore unconscious memories effectively, not just a few sessions.
D: Group sessions may not provide the individualized support and focus needed to address specific childhood abuse memories and their associated trauma effectively.
A pregnant woman is in a relationship with a male who routinely abuses her. Her unborn child may engage in high-risk behavior as a teen as a result of:
A. Maternal stress
B. Parental nurturing
C. Appropriate stress responses in the brain
D. Memories of the abuse
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Maternal stress. Maternal stress during pregnancy can affect the unborn child's development, potentially leading to high-risk behavior in the future. Research shows that exposure to abuse and stress during pregnancy can impact the child's neurological and hormonal development, increasing the likelihood of engaging in risky behaviors as a teenager. This is because stress hormones can cross the placenta, affecting the baby's brain development.
Summary:
- Choice B (Parental nurturing) is incorrect because the question specifically mentions abuse, which is not nurturing behavior.
- Choice C (Appropriate stress responses in the brain) is incorrect as it does not address the negative impact of maternal stress during pregnancy on the child's behavior.
- Choice D (Memories of the abuse) is incorrect as the unborn child does not have memories of the abuse, but rather experiences the effects of maternal stress during pregnancy.
An adolescent diagnosed with a CD stole and wrecked a neighbor's motorcycle. Afterward, the adolescent was confronted about the behavior but expressed no remorse. Which variation in the central nervous system best explains the adolescent's reaction?
A. Serotonin dysregulation and increased testosterone activity impair one's capacity for remorse.
B. Increased neuron destruction in the hippocampus results in decreased abilities to conform to social rules.
C. Reduced gray matter in the cortex and dysfunction of the amygdala results in decreased feelings of empathy.
D. Disturbances in the occipital lobe reduce sensations that help an individual clearly visualize the consequences of behavior.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because reduced gray matter in the cortex and dysfunction of the amygdala can lead to decreased feelings of empathy.
1. The cortex is responsible for higher-order cognitive functions, including empathy.
2. The amygdala plays a crucial role in processing emotions, such as empathy and remorse.
3. Reduced gray matter in the cortex and dysfunction of the amygdala can result in deficits in recognizing and processing emotions like empathy and remorse.
Therefore, the adolescent's lack of remorse could be attributed to these neurological abnormalities.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Serotonin dysregulation and increased testosterone activity primarily affect mood regulation and aggression, not necessarily remorse.
B: Neuron destruction in the hippocampus affects memory and learning, not empathy or remorse.
D: Disturbances in the occipital lobe primarily impact vision and visual processing, not empathy or remorse.
RN exams mental health practice questions, set 20 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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