You choose the therapeutic response, the safety priority, and the cue that means the patient is getting worse. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five mental health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who is newly diagnosed with diabetes. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates that the teaching was effective?
A. I will need to take insulin injections every day.
B. I need to monitor my blood glucose levels regularly.
C. I can stop my diabetes medications after a few weeks.
D. I don't need to worry about my diet as long as I take my medications.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — I need to monitor my blood glucose levels regularly.
The correct answer is B: "I need to monitor my blood glucose levels regularly." This statement indicates effective teaching because monitoring blood glucose levels is essential for managing diabetes. Regular monitoring helps the patient understand how their body responds to food, exercise, and medications. It allows for adjustments in the treatment plan to maintain blood sugar levels within target range.
A: Taking insulin injections daily may be necessary for some patients with diabetes, but this alone does not indicate effective teaching as monitoring blood glucose levels is also critical.
C: Stopping diabetes medications without healthcare provider's guidance can be dangerous and indicates a lack of understanding about the chronic nature of diabetes.
D: Neglecting diet and relying solely on medications is not an effective approach to managing diabetes. Diet plays a crucial role in controlling blood sugar levels.
Question 2
A patient is receiving aripiprazole. Which nursing intervention(s) will the nurse include in the patient’s care plan? (Select all that apply.)
A. Administer before meals on an empty stomach to facilitate absorption.
B. Remain with the patient until medication is swallowed.
C. Monitor vital signs to detect orthostatic hypotension.
D. Assess the patient for evidence of neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Remain with the patient until medication is swallowed.
The correct answer is B: Remain with the patient until medication is swallowed. This intervention is important to ensure medication compliance and prevent cheeking or hoarding of the medication. By staying with the patient until the medication is swallowed, the nurse can confirm that the full dose is taken, reducing the risk of treatment failure.
Choice A is incorrect because aripiprazole can be taken with or without food, so administering it before meals on an empty stomach is not necessary for absorption. Choice C is incorrect because while monitoring vital signs is important when administering aripiprazole, it is primarily to detect side effects such as tachycardia rather than orthostatic hypotension specifically. Choice D is incorrect because while assessing for neuroleptic malignant syndrome is important with antipsychotic medications, it is not a specific nursing intervention related to aripiprazole administration.
Question 3
How can attributional style influence the likelihood of developing depression?
A. By fostering a positive attributional style, individuals can enhance their resilience against depression.
B. Attributional style does not significantly influence the development of depression.
C. By adopting a negative attributional style, individuals increase their vulnerability to depression.
D. Attributional style influences the likelihood of developing depression by determining how individuals interpret and respond to events.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Attributional style influences the likelihood of developing depression by determining how individuals interpret and respond to events.
The correct answer is D because attributional style plays a crucial role in influencing the likelihood of developing depression by shaping how individuals interpret and respond to events. A positive attributional style can indeed enhance resilience against depression by promoting adaptive coping mechanisms and positive interpretations of situations, which can buffer against the development of depressive symptoms. Conversely, a negative attributional style, characterized by attributing negative events to internal, stable, and global factors, can increase vulnerability to depression by fostering feelings of helplessness and hopelessness. Choices A and C provide accurate insights into how different attributional styles can impact the development of depression, making them incorrect. Choice B is incorrect as research indicates that attributional style does have a significant influence on the likelihood of developing depression.
Question 4
During the first interview with a man from Syria who has just lost his son in a car accident, in sympathy for the mans loss, the female nurse reaches out and hugs him. Which is an accurate evaluation of the nurses action?
A. The nurses action should be evaluated as unacceptable due to breech of cultural norms.
B. The nurses action should be evaluated as empathetic, encouraging expression of feelings.
C. The nurses action should be evaluated as the technique of offering self.
D. The nurses action should be evaluated as inappropriate due to poor timing.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — The nurses action should be evaluated as unacceptable due to breech of cultural norms.
The correct answer is A because the nurse's action of hugging the man from Syria who just lost his son in a car accident breaches cultural norms. In many Middle Eastern cultures, physical touch, especially between unrelated individuals of the opposite sex, is considered inappropriate and can be seen as disrespectful. This can cause discomfort and may even offend the individual. In this scenario, the nurse should respect the man's cultural background and find alternative ways to show empathy and support, such as verbal expressions of sympathy or offering a comforting presence.
Choice B is incorrect because while the nurse may have intended to show empathy, the method of hugging was culturally inappropriate. Choice C is incorrect as offering self typically involves sharing personal experiences to build rapport, not physical touch. Choice D is also incorrect as the issue lies more with cultural norms rather than poor timing.
Question 5
A patient has anorexia nervosa. The history shows the patient virtually stopped eating 5 months ago and lost 25% of body weight. The serum potassium is 2.7 mg/dL. Which nursing diagnosis applies?
A. Adult failure to thrive related to abuse of laxatives, as evidenced by electrolyte imbalances
B. Ineffective health maintenance related to self-induced vomiting, as evidenced by swollen parotid glands and hyperkalemia
C. Disturbed energy field related to physical exertion in excess of energy produced through caloric intake, as evidenced by weight loss and hyperkalemia
D. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to refusal to eat, as evidenced by loss of 25% of body weight and hypokalemia
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to refusal to eat, as evidenced by loss of 25% of body weight and hypokalemia
The correct answer is D: Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to refusal to eat, as evidenced by loss of 25% of body weight and hypokalemia.
Rationale:
1. Imbalanced nutrition: The patient's history of virtually stopping eating and losing 25% of body weight indicates a lack of adequate nutrition intake.
2. Less than body requirements: The significant weight loss and prolonged period of decreased food intake support this nursing diagnosis.
3. Refusal to eat: The patient's behavior of stopping eating aligns with this diagnosis.
4. Loss of 25% of body weight: This is a critical indicator of severe malnutrition.
5. Hypokalemia: Low serum potassium levels (2.7 mg/dL) are associated with inadequate nutrition intake and support the diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. The patient's history does not mention abuse of laxatives.
B: Incorrect. There is no mention of self-induced vomiting or
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Question 6
The nurse is talking to a female client who is a survivor of intimate partner violence. The woman relates that her husband has been told that he has the characteristics of an antisocial personality disorder. The woman also informs the nurse that her husband has an extensive criminal record. The nurse interprets this information and suspects that the woman's husband would most likely demonstrate which behavior?
A. A risk for moderate to severe violence with people both within and outside his family
B. Intermittent remorse for the violence and abuse that he commits
C. Symptoms of depression along with harboring feelings of inadequacy
D. Purposefully remain socially isolated from people other than those in his family
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: A risk for moderate to severe violence with people both within and outside his family. This is because individuals with antisocial personality disorder often exhibit behaviors such as aggression, impulsivity, disregard for the rights of others, and lack of empathy. With an extensive criminal record and being identified as having characteristics of antisocial personality disorder, the woman's husband is at an increased risk for violent behavior towards both family members and others.
Choice B is incorrect because individuals with antisocial personality disorder typically lack remorse for their actions. Choice C is incorrect as depression and feelings of inadequacy are not characteristic of antisocial personality disorder. Choice D is incorrect as individuals with antisocial personality disorder may maintain superficial relationships but are not likely to isolate themselves from others purposefully.
Which one of the following BEST describes the FIRST step that a physical therapist should take when integrating best evidence into clinical practice?
A. Identify current best evidence on the most successful interventions for the patient's diagnosis.
B. Mine the available data and critically appraise the evidence for its validity, level of evidence, and applicability.
C. Integrate the best evidence into clinical decision making after discussing it with the patient.
D. Identify a clinically relevant question that is important for the patient.
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for why answer D is correct:
1. Identifying a clinically relevant question is crucial for guiding the integration of evidence into practice.
2. This step ensures that the evidence sought aligns with the specific needs and concerns of the patient.
3. By focusing on the patient's individual situation, the therapist can tailor the evidence-based interventions effectively.
4. It sets the foundation for a patient-centered approach to care, enhancing clinical decision-making.
5. Overall, starting with a clinically relevant question is the essential first step in evidence-based practice.
Summary:
A: Identifying current best evidence is premature without understanding the patient's specific needs.
B: Critically appraising evidence comes after identifying the question to ensure relevance.
C: Discussing evidence with the patient is important but should follow after identifying the relevant question.
What is the order of Maslow's hierarchy of needs, from lower level to upper level?
A. physiological, safety/security, belonging and love/social, esteem, self-actualization
B. esteem, self-actualization, physiological, safety/security, belonging and love/social
C. belonging and love/social, esteem, self-actualization, physiological, safety/security
D. safety/security, physiological, esteem, belonging and love/social, self-actualization
Correct answer:
The correct order of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is A: physiological, safety/security, belonging and love/social, esteem, self-actualization. This order follows Maslow's theory that individuals must satisfy lower level needs before progressing to higher level needs. Physiological needs like food and water are the most basic and must be met first, followed by safety/security needs. Belonging and love/social needs come next, then esteem needs such as recognition and respect, leading to self-actualization, the highest level of realizing one's potential.
Choice B is incorrect as it starts with esteem and self-actualization, skipping physiological and safety needs. Choice C is incorrect as it starts with belonging and love/social needs, skipping physiological, safety, and esteem needs. Choice D is incorrect as it starts with safety/security, skipping physiological needs and has a different order of esteem and belonging needs.
A nurse is leading a group on an adolescent psychiatric unit. A new member in the group is from out of state; his accent and his way of dressing set him apart from the other patients; and it is obvious that the group, for the most part, dislikes this patient. During the group session, the nurse has the members draw the emotion they are feeling and then has them present their drawings and explain them to the group. Which of the following would be the most effective way to address the group's dislike for the new member?
A. Skip him when it is his turn to present his drawing.
B. Let the patient talk last so the others will not have time to make fun of him.
C. Compliment the patient when he presents his drawing.
D. Demand that each member of the group tell the patient why they dislike him.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Compliment the patient when he presents his drawing. By complimenting the patient when he presents his drawing, the nurse can help shift the group's negative attitude towards the new member. This approach promotes positivity and encourages the group to see the new member in a different light. It also fosters a more supportive and inclusive environment within the group.
Skipping him when it is his turn to present his drawing (choice A) would only further isolate the new member and perpetuate the negative feelings towards him. Letting the patient talk last so the others will not have time to make fun of him (choice B) does not address the underlying issue of dislike and may not effectively change the group dynamics. Demanding that each member of the group tell the patient why they dislike him (choice D) can be confrontational and may escalate the situation, leading to more negativity and hostility.
A patient is receiving aripiprazole. Which nursing intervention(s) will the nurse include in the patient’s care plan? (Select all that apply.)
A. Administer before meals on an empty stomach to facilitate absorption.
B. Remain with the patient until medication is swallowed.
C. Monitor vital signs to detect orthostatic hypotension.
D. Assess the patient for evidence of neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Remain with the patient until medication is swallowed. This intervention is important to ensure medication compliance and prevent cheeking or hoarding of the medication. By staying with the patient until the medication is swallowed, the nurse can confirm that the full dose is taken, reducing the risk of treatment failure.
Choice A is incorrect because aripiprazole can be taken with or without food, so administering it before meals on an empty stomach is not necessary for absorption. Choice C is incorrect because while monitoring vital signs is important when administering aripiprazole, it is primarily to detect side effects such as tachycardia rather than orthostatic hypotension specifically. Choice D is incorrect because while assessing for neuroleptic malignant syndrome is important with antipsychotic medications, it is not a specific nursing intervention related to aripiprazole administration.
A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder has lost 20 pounds in one month, has chronic low self-esteem, and a plan for suicide. The patient has taken antidepressant medication for 1 week. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
A. Implement suicide precautions.
B. Offer high-calorie snacks and fluids frequently.
C. Assist the patient to identify three personal strengths.
D. Observe patient for therapeutic effects of antidepressant medication.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Implement suicide precautions. This is the highest priority intervention because the patient has a plan for suicide, which poses an immediate risk to their safety. Implementing suicide precautions involves ensuring the patient's safety by removing any potential means of self-harm, closely monitoring their behavior, and providing constant supervision to prevent any suicide attempts.
Choice B is incorrect because offering high-calorie snacks and fluids frequently does not address the immediate risk of suicide. Choice C is incorrect because assisting the patient to identify personal strengths is important for building self-esteem but is not the highest priority when the patient is at risk of suicide. Choice D is incorrect because observing the patient for therapeutic effects of antidepressant medication is important but ensuring the patient's safety takes precedence when there is a risk of suicide.
What common symptom of borderline personality disorder is described as alternating between extremes of idealization and devaluation of one's partner?
A. body illusion
B. dissociation
C. grandiosity
D. splitting
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: splitting. Splitting is a common symptom of borderline personality disorder where individuals alternate between extremes of idealization and devaluation of others, such as partners. This behavior stems from the inability to integrate both positive and negative feelings towards the same person or object. It leads to black-and-white thinking and unstable relationships.
A: Body illusion - This term does not relate to the alternating idealization and devaluation of partners seen in borderline personality disorder.
B: Dissociation - Dissociation involves a disconnection from thoughts, feelings, or memories, and does not specifically address the idealization and devaluation pattern in relationships.
C: Grandiosity - Grandiosity refers to an inflated sense of self-importance and superiority, which is not directly related to the pattern of idealization and devaluation in relationships seen in splitting.
Which intervention would qualify as primary prevention of violent behaviors in children and adolescents?
A. Forbidding the child to continue friendships with violent peers
B. Limiting exposure to violence on TV, video, and computer games
C. Seeking counseling for a child who has been experimenting with drugs
D. Showing a unified approach to parenting when dealing with a violent child
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because limiting exposure to violence on TV, video, and computer games falls under primary prevention by addressing risk factors before violent behaviors occur. This intervention helps reduce the likelihood of children and adolescents developing violent tendencies by minimizing their exposure to violent content that can influence their behavior.
A: Forbidding the child to continue friendships with violent peers is more of a secondary prevention strategy targeting existing risk factors, not primary prevention.
C: Seeking counseling for a child who has been experimenting with drugs is also a secondary prevention strategy focusing on addressing a specific risk factor, not primary prevention.
D: Showing a unified approach to parenting when dealing with a violent child is a tertiary prevention strategy aimed at managing and reducing harm after the behavior has already occurred, not primary prevention.
Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
B. Psychoanalysis
C. Medication management
D. Group therapy
Correct answer:
Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.
A male client who is admitted with delirium tremens is dehydrated and experiencing auditory hallucinations. He has a bruised, swollen tongue and is confused. In developing a plan of care, which action should the nurse include to ensure the client is physiologically stable?
A. Monitor vital signs.
B. Administer PRN antipsychotic medication.
C. Provide a quiet environment.
D. Encourage fluid intake.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Monitor vital signs. This is crucial in managing a client with delirium tremens to ensure physiological stability. Monitoring vital signs such as blood pressure, heart rate, temperature, and respiratory rate can help identify any signs of deterioration or complications like dehydration, sepsis, or cardiovascular instability. By closely monitoring these parameters, the nurse can intervene promptly and prevent any further complications.
Summary:
- Option B is incorrect because administering antipsychotic medication is not the priority in managing delirium tremens.
- Option C is incorrect as providing a quiet environment may help with managing hallucinations, but it does not address the physiological stability of the client.
- Option D is incorrect as encouraging fluid intake is important for hydration but does not address the need for monitoring vital signs to ensure physiological stability.
RN exams mental health practice questions, set 25 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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