You choose the therapeutic response, the safety priority, and the cue that means the patient is getting worse. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five mental health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A 78-year-old man has a history of a cerebrovascular accident. The nurse notes that when he walks, his left arm is immobile against the body with flexion of the shoulder, elbow, wrist, and fingers and adduction of the shoulder. His left leg is stiff and extended and circumducts with each step. What type of gait disturbance is this individual experiencing?
A. Scissors gait
B. Cerebellar ataxia
C. Parkinsonian gait
D. Spastic hemiparesis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Spastic hemiparesis
The correct answer is D: Spastic hemiparesis. This individual is displaying classic signs of spastic hemiparesis, a type of gait disturbance commonly seen after a cerebrovascular accident. The immobile left arm with flexion and adduction, along with the stiff and extended left leg that circumducts, are indicative of upper motor neuron damage affecting the corticospinal tract. This results in increased muscle tone, exaggerated deep tendon reflexes, and weakness on one side of the body. Scissors gait (choice A) is characterized by legs crossing over each other during walking and is typically seen in spastic diplegia. Cerebellar ataxia (choice B) presents with uncoordinated movements, wide-based staggering gait, and intention tremors, which are not present in this case. Parkinsonian gait (choice C) is characterized by shuffling steps, decreased arm swing, and festination, which do not match the symptoms described
Question 2
When a novice nurse asks why the unit has a multidisciplinary approach to therapeutic activities, the nurse should explain that multidisciplinary collaboration:
A. Reduces the incidence of aggressive behavior by patients
B. Produces quicker results and earlier discharge to the community
C. Produces better outcomes than when only one perspective is used
D. Helps to improve staffing efficiency and resource allocation.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Produces better outcomes than when only one perspective is used
Rationale for Correct Answer (C): Multidisciplinary collaboration in therapeutic activities involves the input of professionals from various disciplines, leading to a holistic approach that considers all aspects of a patient's condition. This approach is more likely to result in better outcomes because it combines diverse perspectives, expertise, and skills to address complex patient needs comprehensively.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Reducing aggressive behavior is not the primary goal of multidisciplinary collaboration in therapeutic activities.
B: While multidisciplinary collaboration may lead to efficient care, the primary focus is on achieving better outcomes rather than quicker discharge.
D: Although improving staffing efficiency and resource allocation may be benefits of multidisciplinary collaboration, the main purpose is to enhance patient care outcomes through diverse perspectives and expertise.
Question 3
A 78-year-old man has a history of a cerebrovascular accident. The nurse notes that when he walks, his left arm is immobile against the body with flexion of the shoulder, elbow, wrist, and fingers and adduction of the shoulder. His left leg is stiff and extended and circumducts with each step. What type of gait disturbance is this individual experiencing?
A. Scissors gait
B. Cerebellar ataxia
C. Parkinsonian gait
D. Spastic hemiparesis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Spastic hemiparesis
The correct answer is D: Spastic hemiparesis. This individual is displaying classic signs of spastic hemiparesis, a type of gait disturbance commonly seen after a cerebrovascular accident. The immobile left arm with flexion and adduction, along with the stiff and extended left leg that circumducts, are indicative of upper motor neuron damage affecting the corticospinal tract. This results in increased muscle tone, exaggerated deep tendon reflexes, and weakness on one side of the body. Scissors gait (choice A) is characterized by legs crossing over each other during walking and is typically seen in spastic diplegia. Cerebellar ataxia (choice B) presents with uncoordinated movements, wide-based staggering gait, and intention tremors, which are not present in this case. Parkinsonian gait (choice C) is characterized by shuffling steps, decreased arm swing, and festination, which do not match the symptoms described
Question 4
Assessment of a client with schizophrenia reveals that he is hearing voices that tell him that people are staring at him and illusions. When developing the plan of care for this client, which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate?
A. Disturbed thought processes
B. Risk for self-directed violence
C. Disturbed sensory perception
D. Ineffective coping
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Disturbed sensory perception
The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations and illusions is "Disturbed sensory perception" (C). This diagnosis reflects the client's altered sensory experiences, such as hearing voices and experiencing illusions. It focuses on the client's perception of reality, which is impaired in this case.
Choice A (Disturbed thought processes) is incorrect because it primarily focuses on cognitive processes rather than sensory experiences. Choice B (Risk for self-directed violence) is not the most appropriate because the client's symptoms do not directly indicate a risk of self-harm. Choice D (Ineffective coping) is also not as relevant in this case as the primary issue is related to sensory perception rather than coping mechanisms. Therefore, the correct diagnosis is "Disturbed sensory perception" as it addresses the client's altered sensory experiences.
Question 5
A nurse wants to find information about environmental threats that are present in the community. Which of the following would be the best source of data for the nurse?
A. Cumulative Index of Nursing and Allied Health (CINAHL) database
B. National Library of Medicine
C. State health department
D. Closest local library
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — State health department
The correct answer is C: State health department. This is the best source of data for the nurse as it provides accurate and up-to-date information on environmental threats specific to the community. The state health department collects data from various sources, conducts surveillance, and monitors environmental factors that may pose a risk to public health. They have the expertise and resources to analyze and report on environmental threats, making them a reliable source for the nurse.
A: The CINAHL database is more focused on nursing and allied health research, not specifically on community environmental threats.
B: The National Library of Medicine is a valuable resource for medical information but may not have community-specific environmental threat data.
D: The closest local library may not have the specialized information needed on community environmental threats compared to the state health department.
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Question 6
A client with a mental disorder is being discharged from the inpatient unit. During the client's stay in the hospital, the client eventually was able to get an adequate night's sleep even though the client had experienced chronic insomnia over the years. The client's spouse asks the nurse what the family can do in the client's home environment to promote healthy sleep. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
A. It is basically up to your husband to focus on promoting his own sleep.'
B. You might consider a glass of wine about 30 minutes before he is ready to go to bed.'
C. Remember to keep stimulating activities at a minimum before he goes to bed.'
D. Give him a spicy snack with a warm cup of tea at night before bedtime.'
Correct answer:
The most appropriate response by the nurse is C: "Remember to keep stimulating activities at a minimum before he goes to bed." This is the correct answer because engaging in stimulating activities before bedtime can disrupt sleep. It is essential to create a relaxing bedtime routine to promote healthy sleep patterns. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the importance of avoiding stimulating activities before bedtime or promoting a calming environment for sleep. Option A puts the responsibility solely on the client, missing the opportunity for the family to support healthy sleep habits. Option B suggests alcohol consumption before bed, which can negatively impact sleep quality. Option D recommends a spicy snack and tea before bed, which can lead to discomfort and disrupt sleep. Ultimately, choice C is the best option as it focuses on creating a conducive environment for restful sleep.
What personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of by others?
A. Dependent personality disorder (DPD)
B. Histrionic personality disorder
C. Narcissistic personality disorder
D. Avoidant personality disorder
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Dependent personality disorder (DPD). This disorder is characterized by a pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of by others, leading to submissive and clinging behavior. Individuals with DPD have difficulty making everyday decisions without reassurance from others.
Rationale:
1. Dependent personality disorder aligns with the description of needing excessive care and being submissive.
2. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by attention-seeking behavior, not a need for dependency.
3. Narcissistic personality disorder involves a grandiose sense of self-importance, not a need for dependency.
4. Avoidant personality disorder is marked by social inhibition and feelings of inadequacy, not a need for excessive care from others.
In summary, the key characteristic of dependency and excessive need for care points to dependent personality disorder as the correct answer.
A client tells the RN that he has an IQ of 400+ and is a genius and an inventor. He also reports that he is married to a female movie star and thinks that his brother wants a sexual relationship with her. What is the priority nursing problem for admission to the psychiatric unit?
A. Ineffective sexual patterns.
B. Impaired environmental interpretation.
C. Disturbed sensory perception.
D. Compromised family coping.
Correct answer:
The priority nursing problem for admission to the psychiatric unit is 'Disturbed sensory perception.' This choice is correct because the client's delusional beliefs about having an IQ of 400+, being a genius and an inventor, being married to a movie star, and suspecting his brother of wanting a sexual relationship with her indicate a significant disturbance in sensory perception. The client's perceptions are not based in reality, indicating a need for immediate intervention to address these distorted beliefs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: 'Ineffective sexual patterns' is not the priority as the client's delusions go beyond just sexual relationships, 'Impaired environmental interpretation' does not capture the primary issue of distorted perceptions, and 'Compromised family coping' is not the priority concern in this scenario compared to the severe sensory perception disturbances displayed by the client.
What intervention is likely to be most effective in returning a middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder who suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and amotivation to a normal level of functioning?
A. Encourage the client to exercise.
B. Suggest that the client develop a list of pleasurable activities.
C. Provide education on methods to enhance sleep.
D. Teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities.
Correct answer:
The most effective intervention for a middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder experiencing psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and amotivation is to teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities. This intervention helps combat the symptoms by providing a routine and purpose to the client's day, addressing the issues of psychomotor retardation and amotivation. Structured activities can help establish a sense of normalcy, improve motivation, and regulate sleep patterns. Encouraging exercise (Choice A) can be beneficial but may be challenging for a client experiencing psychomotor retardation. Developing a list of pleasurable activities (Choice B) may not address the need for structure and routine in the client's daily life. Providing education on sleep enhancement methods (Choice C) is important but may not be sufficient to address the overall functional impairment in this case.
Donald, a 49-year-old male, is admitted for inpatient alcohol detoxification. He is cachexic, has multiple scabs on his arms and legs, and has lower extremity edema. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for Donald along with an expected outcome is:
A. Risk for injury/Remains free from injury
B. Ineffective denial/Accepts responsibility for behavior
C. Nutrition: Less than body requirements/Maintains nutrient intake for metabolic needs
D. Risk for suicide/Expresses feelings, plans for the future
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Nutrition: Less than body requirements/Maintains nutrient intake for metabolic needs.
Rationale:
1. Donald is cachexic, indicating severe malnutrition.
2. Multiple scabs suggest poor wound healing due to malnutrition.
3. Lower extremity edema can be a sign of protein deficiency.
4. The nursing diagnosis of Nutrition: Less than body requirements fits Donald's clinical presentation.
5. The expected outcome of Maintains nutrient intake for metabolic needs addresses the goal of improving Donald's nutritional status.
Summary:
A: Risk for injury/Remains free from injury - Not the best choice as Donald's primary issue is malnutrition, not injury risk.
B: Ineffective denial/Accepts responsibility for behavior - Not relevant to the physical health issues presented by Donald.
D: Risk for suicide/Expresses feelings, plans for the future - Donald's symptoms do not suggest a risk for suicide.
Distinguish between necessary, sufficient, and contributory causes of abnormal behavior.
A. Necessary causes are required for a disorder to develop but do not guarantee it.
B. Sufficient causes guarantee a disorder will develop, but they are not required.
C. Contributory causes increase the likelihood of a disorder but are neither necessary nor sufficient.
D. Contributory causes are conditions that guarantee the occurrence of a disorder.
Correct answer:
In understanding abnormal behavior, it is crucial to differentiate between necessary, sufficient, and contributory causes. Necessary causes are those that are required for a disorder to develop, meaning that without them, the disorder would not occur. However, their presence does not guarantee the occurrence of the disorder. Sufficient causes, on the other hand, are those that alone can guarantee the development of a disorder, but they are not the only factors that can lead to it. Contributory causes are factors that increase the likelihood of a disorder but are not essential on their own nor do they guarantee the disorder. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the role of necessary causes in the development of abnormal behavior. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they misrepresent the definitions and roles of sufficient and contributory causes in causing abnormal behavior.
A patient previously hospitalized for 2 weeks committed suicide the day after discharge. Which initial nursing measure will be most important regarding this event?
A. Request the information technology manager to verify the patient's medical record is secure in the hospital information system.
B. Hold a meeting for staff to provide support, express feelings, and identify overlooked clues or faulty judgments.
C. Consult the hospital's legal department regarding potential consequences of the event.
D. Document a report of a sentinel event in the patient's medical record.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because holding a meeting for staff to provide support, express feelings, and identify overlooked clues or faulty judgments is crucial in addressing the emotional impact of the patient's suicide and identifying any potential errors in care. This measure promotes teamwork, communication, and a culture of learning from adverse events to prevent future occurrences.
Option A is incorrect because verifying the security of the patient's medical record does not directly address the emotional impact on staff or the need for reflection on care provided.
Option C is incorrect as consulting the legal department focuses on potential legal consequences rather than immediate emotional and clinical considerations.
Option D is incorrect because documenting a report of a sentinel event is necessary but does not address the immediate need for staff support and reflection on care provided.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client diagnosed with narcissistic personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare professional expect?
A. Grandiose sense of self-importance
B. Lack of empathy
C. Need for excessive admiration
D. Envy of others
Correct answer:
Clients with narcissistic personality disorder often exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, believing they are special and unique. This behavior is characterized by an exaggerated sense of achievements and talents, expecting to be recognized as superior without commensurate achievements. While individuals with this disorder may lack empathy and have a need for excessive admiration, the prominent feature of grandiosity is a core aspect of narcissistic personality disorder. Therefore, the correct behavior expected in this case is a grandiose sense of self-importance (Choice A). Lack of empathy (Choice B) and need for excessive admiration (Choice C) are also common traits in narcissistic personality disorder, but they are not the primary behavior associated with the disorder. Envy of others (Choice D) is not a characteristic behavior typically seen in individuals with narcissistic personality disorder.
Which theorist most influenced the professional practice of psychiatric nursing?
A. Harry Stack Sullivan
B. Hildegard Peplau
C. Erik Erikson
D. Ivan Pavlov
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Hildegard Peplau. Peplau's theory of interpersonal relations emphasized the therapeutic nurse-client relationship, which greatly influenced psychiatric nursing practice. Her framework focused on nurse-patient communication, understanding patient behavior, and promoting patient growth and development. This approach revolutionized how psychiatric nurses engage with and care for patients.
A: Harry Stack Sullivan was a psychiatrist known for interpersonal theory, which has relevance in psychiatric nursing but not as impactful as Peplau's work.
C: Erik Erikson was a developmental psychologist whose stages of psychosocial development are relevant to understanding patients in psychiatric nursing, but Peplau's theory directly informs nursing practice.
D: Ivan Pavlov was a physiologist known for classical conditioning, which is not directly related to psychiatric nursing practice.
A group of nursing students are reviewing information about spirituality and religiousness. The group demonstrates understanding of these concepts when they identify religiousness as which of the following?
A. Feeling of connectedness
B. Way of interpreting life events
C. Relationship with a unifying force
D. Community participation in common worship
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Community participation in common worship. Religiousness involves engaging in activities such as attending religious services, participating in rituals, and sharing beliefs within a community setting. This choice specifically emphasizes the communal aspect of religious practice, highlighting the importance of group participation in worship activities.
A: Feeling of connectedness - While feeling connectedness can be a part of religious experience, it is not specific to religiousness and can be experienced in various contexts.
B: Way of interpreting life events - This choice refers more to spirituality, which involves personal beliefs and values, rather than specifically religious practices.
C: Relationship with a unifying force - While this can be a component of religious beliefs, it does not capture the active participation in community worship that is central to religiousness.
RN exams mental health practice questions, set 29 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.