RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 30

RN exams · medical-surgical

RN exams medical-surgical practice questions set 30

You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five medical-surgical questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

A classification of wound that usually heals quickly, generally within days to weeks, with well-approximated edges and lessened infection risk is:

  1. A. Abrasion wound
  2. B. Acute wound
  3. C. Chronic wound
  4. D. Unintentional wound
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Acute wound

Acute wound,' as it describes a wound that heals quickly (days to weeks) with well-approximated edges and reduced infection risk. Acute wounds, like cuts or surgical incisions, follow a predictable healing trajectory due to minimal tissue loss and prompt repair, often via primary intention. 'Abrasion wound' is a type of injury (scraping), not a healing classification, and may heal slower if extensive. 'Chronic wound' persists beyond weeks, often due to underlying conditions like diabetes, contradicting quick healing. 'Unintentional wound' defines cause (accidental), not healing speed or edge alignment. In nursing, identifying acute wounds guides timely interventions e.g., suturing versus chronic wounds needing prolonged care. B aligns with the description's focus on healing dynamics, distinguishing it as the accurate classification over specific wound types or causation.

Question 2

A client is admitted to the hospital with a burn injury covering $30% of the body surface area. The nurse anticipates that the client will require which type of dressing for wound care?

  1. A. Hydrocolloid dressing
  2. B. Hydrogel dressing
  3. C. Alginate dressing
  4. D. Silver dressing
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Silver dressing

Silver dressing is the correct answer because it's ideal for burn injuries covering 30% of the body surface area due to its antimicrobial properties, reducing infection risk a major concern in burns where skin barriers are compromised. Silver ions kill bacteria, manage pain, inflammation, and odor, supporting healing in high-risk wounds. Hydrocolloid dressing is occlusive, suited for minimal-drainage wounds, but can trap bacteria in infected or heavily exudative burns, risking maceration. Hydrogel dressing hydrates dry wounds but lacks sufficient absorption for burn exudate and isn't antimicrobial, making it less suitable. Alginate dressing absorbs heavy exudate but isn't ideal for dry or minimally draining burns and lacks inherent infection control. Given the burn's extent and infection vulnerability, silver dressing offers the best protective and therapeutic benefits.

Question 3

Which of the ff is TRUE about health education in public health?

  1. A. It only done by professionals like nurses
  2. B. It is every health worker responsibility
  3. C. It remains constant
  4. D. It is seldom use in public health setting
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — It is every health worker responsibility

Health education is a crucial component of public health aimed at promoting health, preventing diseases, and empowering individuals to make informed decisions about their health. It is not limited to only professionals like nurses but is the responsibility of every health worker across various disciplines. Health workers, including doctors, community health workers, public health educators, and others, play a vital role in delivering health education to the community they serve. By ensuring that health education is a shared responsibility among all health workers, a more comprehensive and effective approach to public health promotion can be achieved. It is continuously evolving to adapt to changing health needs and challenges, making it dynamic rather than remaining constant. Therefore, option B is the most accurate statement regarding health education in public health.

Question 4

The following are stages in the regeneration of skin following an injury: blood clot/scab formation, calcium injection, epidermis covers granulation tissue, epidermis covers scar tissue. The correct order for these events is:

  1. A. 4, 3, 2, 1
  2. B. 2, 4, 1, 3
  3. C. 1, 2, 3, 4
  4. D. 4, 3, 1, 2
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — 1, 2, 3, 4

The correct order for the stages in skin regeneration following an injury is: 1) Blood clot/scab formation, 2) Epidermis covers granulation tissue, 3) Epidermis covers scar tissue, and 4) Calcium injection. Rationale: 1) Blood clot/scab formation occurs first to stop bleeding and prevent infection. 2) Epidermis covering granulation tissue signifies the growth of new tissue. 3) Epidermis covering scar tissue indicates the completion of tissue repair. 4) Calcium injection is not a typical stage in skin regeneration; it does not play a direct role in the natural healing process. Summary: Choice A is incorrect as it starts with covering scar tissue, which is a later stage. Choice B is incorrect as it introduces calcium injection, which is not a standard stage. Choice D is incorrect as it places calcium injection before blood clot formation, which is inaccurate.

Question 5

A client who was in a motor vehicle collision was admitted to the hospital, and the right knee was placed in skeletal traction. The nurse has documented this nursing diagnosis in the client's medical record: 'Potential for impairment of skin integrity related to immobility from traction.' Which nursing intervention is indicated based on this diagnosis statement?

  1. A. Release the traction every 4 hours to provide skin care.
  2. B. Turn the client for back care while suspending traction.
  3. C. Provide back and skin care while maintaining the traction.
  4. D. Give back care after the client is released from traction.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Provide back and skin care while maintaining the traction.

The correct nursing intervention indicated based on the nursing diagnosis 'Potential for impairment of skin integrity related to immobility from traction' is to provide back and skin care while maintaining the traction. This intervention is crucial for maintaining the client's skin integrity and preventing potential complications. Releasing the traction every 4 hours (Choice A) may disrupt the treatment plan and compromise the effectiveness of traction. Turning the client for back care while suspending traction (Choice B) does not address the need for skin care while the client is in traction. Giving back care after the client is released from traction (Choice D) neglects the immediate need to prevent skin impairment while in traction. Therefore, providing back and skin care while maintaining the traction (Choice C) is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario.

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Question 6

Which of the following is a common complication associated with prostatectomy for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

  1. A. Erectile dysfunction
  2. B. Urinary incontinence
  3. C. Retrograde ejaculation
  4. D. Urethral stricture
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Question 7

A woman in active labor has been diagnosed with placenta previa. What is the priority nursing intervention?

  1. A. Prepare for immediate cesarean section.
  2. B. Administer intravenous oxytocin to augment labor.
  3. C. Insert a Foley catheter to monitor urine output.
  4. D. Implement bed rest and continuous fetal monitoring.
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Question 8

The nurse is caring for a young adult woman taking immune modulating medications who has been advised to use barrier contraceptives but she wants to start her family. What information can the nurse provide about these drugs to help this patient with her decision-making?

  1. A. Discuss the desire to start a family with the provider so risk can be minimized.
  2. B. Immune modulating drugs will need to be discontinued if pregnancy occurs.
  3. C. Immune modulating drugs have been proven to be highly teratogenic.
  4. D. Pregnancy is not an option when taking immune modulating drugs but adoption is an option.
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Question 9

A child who weighs 10 kg will begin taking oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The liquid preparation contains 40 mg of TMP and 200 mg of SMX per 5 mL. The nurse determines that the child's dose should be 8 mg of TMP and 40 mg of SMX/kg/day divided into two doses. Which order for this child is correct?

  1. A. 5 mL PO BID
  2. B. 5 mL PO daily
  3. C. 10 mL PO BID
  4. D. 10 mL PO daily
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Question 10

A middle-aged male client with diabetes continues to eat an abundance of foods that are high in sugar and fat. According to the Health Belief Model, which event is most likely to increase the client's willingness to become compliant with the prescribed diet?

  1. A. He visits his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot.
  2. B. He is provided with the most current information about the dangers of untreated diabetes.
  3. C. He comments on the community service announcements about preventing complications associated with diabetes.
  4. D. His wife expresses a sincere willingness to prepare meals that are within his prescribed diet.
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Question 11

The skin fibres are arranged in bundles known as:

  1. A. zone of hyperaemia
  2. B. lines of cleavage
  3. C. epidermal ridges
  4. D. stratum lucidum
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Question 12

A patient in the ICU develops acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to hypovolemic shock. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's renal function?

  1. A. Administer intravenous fluids to restore circulating volume.
  2. B. Initiate continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) for RRT.
  3. C. Implement strict dietary restrictions to reduce renal workload.
  4. D. Recommend nephrotoxic medications for therapeutic purposes.
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Question 13

The sebaceous glands in the skin produce:

  1. A. milk
  2. B. oil
  3. C. sweat
  4. D. cerumen
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Question 14

A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

  1. A. Hypoglycemia
  2. B. Hyperkalemia
  3. C. Clostridium difficile infection
  4. D. Osteoporosis
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Question 15

A patient presents with a history of recurrent nosebleeds, easy bruising, and gum bleeding. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged bleeding time and normal platelet count, PT, and aPTT. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

  1. A. Von Willebrand disease
  2. B. Hemophilia A
  3. C. Thrombocytopenia
  4. D. Factor V Leiden mutation
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About these RN exams medical-surgical questions

RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 30 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.