RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 30
RN exams · medical-surgical
RN exams medical-surgical practice questionsset 30
You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five medical-surgical questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A classification of wound that usually heals quickly, generally within days to weeks, with well-approximated edges and lessened infection risk is:
A. Abrasion wound
B. Acute wound
C. Chronic wound
D. Unintentional wound
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Acute wound
Acute wound,' as it describes a wound that heals quickly (days to weeks) with well-approximated edges and reduced infection risk. Acute wounds, like cuts or surgical incisions, follow a predictable healing trajectory due to minimal tissue loss and prompt repair, often via primary intention. 'Abrasion wound' is a type of injury (scraping), not a healing classification, and may heal slower if extensive. 'Chronic wound' persists beyond weeks, often due to underlying conditions like diabetes, contradicting quick healing. 'Unintentional wound' defines cause (accidental), not healing speed or edge alignment. In nursing, identifying acute wounds guides timely interventions e.g., suturing versus chronic wounds needing prolonged care. B aligns with the description's focus on healing dynamics, distinguishing it as the accurate classification over specific wound types or causation.
Question 2
A client is admitted to the hospital with a burn injury covering $30% of the body surface area. The nurse anticipates that the client will require which type of dressing for wound care?
A. Hydrocolloid dressing
B. Hydrogel dressing
C. Alginate dressing
D. Silver dressing
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Silver dressing
Silver dressing is the correct answer because it's ideal for burn injuries covering 30% of the body surface area due to its antimicrobial properties, reducing infection risk a major concern in burns where skin barriers are compromised. Silver ions kill bacteria, manage pain, inflammation, and odor, supporting healing in high-risk wounds. Hydrocolloid dressing is occlusive, suited for minimal-drainage wounds, but can trap bacteria in infected or heavily exudative burns, risking maceration. Hydrogel dressing hydrates dry wounds but lacks sufficient absorption for burn exudate and isn't antimicrobial, making it less suitable. Alginate dressing absorbs heavy exudate but isn't ideal for dry or minimally draining burns and lacks inherent infection control. Given the burn's extent and infection vulnerability, silver dressing offers the best protective and therapeutic benefits.
Question 3
Which of the ff is TRUE about health education in public health?
A. It only done by professionals like nurses
B. It is every health worker responsibility
C. It remains constant
D. It is seldom use in public health setting
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — It is every health worker responsibility
Health education is a crucial component of public health aimed at promoting health, preventing diseases, and empowering individuals to make informed decisions about their health. It is not limited to only professionals like nurses but is the responsibility of every health worker across various disciplines. Health workers, including doctors, community health workers, public health educators, and others, play a vital role in delivering health education to the community they serve. By ensuring that health education is a shared responsibility among all health workers, a more comprehensive and effective approach to public health promotion can be achieved. It is continuously evolving to adapt to changing health needs and challenges, making it dynamic rather than remaining constant. Therefore, option B is the most accurate statement regarding health education in public health.
Question 4
The following are stages in the regeneration of skin following an injury: blood clot/scab formation, calcium injection, epidermis covers granulation tissue, epidermis covers scar tissue. The correct order for these events is:
A. 4, 3, 2, 1
B. 2, 4, 1, 3
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
D. 4, 3, 1, 2
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — 1, 2, 3, 4
The correct order for the stages in skin regeneration following an injury is: 1) Blood clot/scab formation, 2) Epidermis covers granulation tissue, 3) Epidermis covers scar tissue, and 4) Calcium injection.
Rationale:
1) Blood clot/scab formation occurs first to stop bleeding and prevent infection.
2) Epidermis covering granulation tissue signifies the growth of new tissue.
3) Epidermis covering scar tissue indicates the completion of tissue repair.
4) Calcium injection is not a typical stage in skin regeneration; it does not play a direct role in the natural healing process.
Summary:
Choice A is incorrect as it starts with covering scar tissue, which is a later stage. Choice B is incorrect as it introduces calcium injection, which is not a standard stage. Choice D is incorrect as it places calcium injection before blood clot formation, which is inaccurate.
Question 5
A client who was in a motor vehicle collision was admitted to the hospital, and the right knee was placed in skeletal traction. The nurse has documented this nursing diagnosis in the client's medical record: 'Potential for impairment of skin integrity related to immobility from traction.' Which nursing intervention is indicated based on this diagnosis statement?
A. Release the traction every 4 hours to provide skin care.
B. Turn the client for back care while suspending traction.
C. Provide back and skin care while maintaining the traction.
D. Give back care after the client is released from traction.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Provide back and skin care while maintaining the traction.
The correct nursing intervention indicated based on the nursing diagnosis 'Potential for impairment of skin integrity related to immobility from traction' is to provide back and skin care while maintaining the traction. This intervention is crucial for maintaining the client's skin integrity and preventing potential complications. Releasing the traction every 4 hours (Choice A) may disrupt the treatment plan and compromise the effectiveness of traction. Turning the client for back care while suspending traction (Choice B) does not address the need for skin care while the client is in traction. Giving back care after the client is released from traction (Choice D) neglects the immediate need to prevent skin impairment while in traction. Therefore, providing back and skin care while maintaining the traction (Choice C) is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario.
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Question 6
Which of the following is a common complication associated with prostatectomy for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Urinary incontinence
C. Retrograde ejaculation
D. Urethral stricture
Correct answer:
Urinary incontinence is a common complication associated with prostatectomy for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Prostate surgery, such as a prostatectomy, can disrupt the sphincter muscle that controls the flow of urine from the bladder, leading to temporary or even long-term urinary incontinence in some patients. This usually improves over time with pelvic floor exercises and other treatment options, but it is an important consideration when discussing the potential risks and benefits of prostate surgery with patients. While erectile dysfunction and retrograde ejaculation can also be potential side effects of prostate surgery, urinary incontinence is specifically associated with issues related to bladder control following the procedure. Urethral stricture, although it can occur post prostate surgery, is less common compared to urinary incontinence.
A woman in active labor has been diagnosed with placenta previa. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Prepare for immediate cesarean section.
B. Administer intravenous oxytocin to augment labor.
C. Insert a Foley catheter to monitor urine output.
D. Implement bed rest and continuous fetal monitoring.
Correct answer:
In the case of a woman in active labor with placenta previa, the priority nursing intervention is to prepare for an immediate cesarean section. Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, which can lead to severe bleeding during labor and delivery. The risk of hemorrhage is significant, making a cesarean section the safest option for both the mother and the baby in this situation. It is crucial to act promptly to prevent complications and ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. Administering intravenous oxytocin to augment labor or inserting a Foley catheter to monitor urine output would not address the immediate risk of hemorrhage associated with placenta previa. Implementing bed rest and continuous fetal monitoring may be part of the overall care plan but not the priority intervention in this urgent situation.
The nurse is caring for a young adult woman taking immune modulating medications who has been advised to use barrier contraceptives but she wants to start her family. What information can the nurse provide about these drugs to help this patient with her decision-making?
A. Discuss the desire to start a family with the provider so risk can be minimized.
B. Immune modulating drugs will need to be discontinued if pregnancy occurs.
C. Immune modulating drugs have been proven to be highly teratogenic.
D. Pregnancy is not an option when taking immune modulating drugs but adoption is an option.
Correct answer:
Rationale:
A: Correct. The nurse should advise the patient to discuss her desire to start a family with her healthcare provider. By doing so, the provider can assess the risks, adjust the medication regimen if necessary, and provide guidance on how to proceed safely during pregnancy.
B: Incorrect. Discontinuing immune modulating drugs abruptly can have negative consequences on the patient's health. It is important to have a healthcare provider manage any necessary adjustments to the medication.
C: Incorrect. While some immune modulating drugs may have potential risks during pregnancy, not all are highly teratogenic. Each drug should be evaluated individually.
D: Incorrect. While pregnancy may require adjustments to the medication regimen, it is not necessarily ruled out as an option. Adoption is a personal choice and should not be presented as the only alternative.
A child who weighs 10 kg will begin taking oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The liquid preparation contains 40 mg of TMP and 200 mg of SMX per 5 mL. The nurse determines that the child's dose should be 8 mg of TMP and 40 mg of SMX/kg/day divided into two doses. Which order for this child is correct?
A. 5 mL PO BID
B. 5 mL PO daily
C. 10 mL PO BID
D. 10 mL PO daily
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: '5 mL PO BID.' To calculate the child's daily dose requirement, you multiply the child's weight (10 kg) by the prescribed dosage per kg, which is 8 mg for TMP and 40 mg for SMX. This results in a total daily requirement of 80 mg of TMP and 400 mg of SMX. To divide this into two doses, each dose should contain half of the total daily requirement, which is 40 mg TMP and 200 mg SMX. Since the liquid preparation contains 40 mg of TMP and 200 mg of SMX per 5 mL, the correct dose per administration is 5 mL. Therefore, 5 mL PO BID is the correct order. Choice B, '5 mL PO daily,' is incorrect as the total daily dose needs to be divided into two doses. Choices C and D, '10 mL PO BID' and '10 mL PO daily,' respectively, are incorrect as they do not align with the calculated dosage requirements based on the child's weight and the prescribed dosage per kg.
A middle-aged male client with diabetes continues to eat an abundance of foods that are high in sugar and fat. According to the Health Belief Model, which event is most likely to increase the client's willingness to become compliant with the prescribed diet?
A. He visits his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot.
B. He is provided with the most current information about the dangers of untreated diabetes.
C. He comments on the community service announcements about preventing complications associated with diabetes.
D. His wife expresses a sincere willingness to prepare meals that are within his prescribed diet.
Correct answer:
According to the Health Belief Model, the most effective event to increase compliance with the prescribed diet for a middle-aged male client with diabetes is experiencing a significant consequence related to the disease. In this case, visiting his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot would serve as a strong 'cue to action,' increasing the client's perceived seriousness of the disease. This event is likely to have a more immediate and impactful effect on the client than other options. Option B provides valuable information but may not have the same personal and emotional impact as witnessing a severe consequence firsthand. Option C involves indirect exposure to prevention messages, which might not be as compelling as a direct experience. Option D, while supportive, does not present a direct consequence of non-compliance like option A does.
Skin fibers, primarily collagen in the dermis, are arranged in bundles called lines of cleavage (or Langer's lines). These parallel alignments reflect the natural tension and orientation of collagen and elastic fibers in the reticular dermis, giving skin strength and flexibility. Surgeons use these lines for incisions, as cuts along them heal with less scarring due to minimal fiber disruption. The zone of hyperaemia is a region of increased blood flow, not a fiber structure. Epidermal ridges, on the epidermis, form fingerprints from dermal papillae, not fiber bundles. The stratum lucidum, an epidermal layer in thick skin, consists of dead cells, not fibers. Lines of cleavage are a dermal feature, visible in histological sections as organized collagen, critical for skin's mechanical properties and surgical outcomes, distinguishing them from epidermal or vascular terms.
A patient in the ICU develops acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to hypovolemic shock. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's renal function?
A. Administer intravenous fluids to restore circulating volume.
B. Initiate continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) for RRT.
C. Implement strict dietary restrictions to reduce renal workload.
D. Recommend nephrotoxic medications for therapeutic purposes.
Correct answer:
In a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to hypovolemic shock, the priority intervention to manage the patient's renal function is to administer intravenous fluids to restore circulating volume. Hypovolemic shock leads to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, resulting in hypoperfusion and ischemic damage to the renal tubules. Prompt correction of hypovolemia with intravenous fluids helps improve renal perfusion and function by increasing blood flow to the kidneys. Adequate fluid resuscitation can potentially prevent further kidney damage and support kidney function recovery. It is crucial to address the underlying cause of AKI (hypovolemia in this case) to prevent complications and improve patient outcomes. Initiating renal replacement therapy or recommending nephrotoxic medications would not be the initial interventions for managing AKI in this scenario.
Sebaceous glands, found in the dermis near hair follicles, produce sebum, an oily substance. Sebum, a mix of lipids like triglycerides and wax esters, lubricates hair and skin, preventing dryness and offering minor antimicrobial protection. It's secreted via a holocrine process cells disintegrate to release it into follicles, then to the skin surface. Milk is produced by mammary glands, modified sweat glands, not sebaceous ones. Sweat comes from eccrine and apocrine glands, distinct from sebaceous function, with water and salts, not oil. Cerumen (earwax) is made by ceruminous glands in the ear canal, a specialized sebaceous type, but not typical skin sebaceous glands. Sebum's oily nature distinguishes it, supporting skin flexibility and waterproofing, a role confirmed by histological and physiological studies of gland activity, setting it apart from other secretions.
A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Clostridium difficile infection
D. Osteoporosis
Correct answer:
Patients prescribed proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for the treatment of GERD should be closely monitored for the development of osteoporosis. PPIs have been associated with an increased risk of developing osteoporotic fractures, particularly in long-term users. This risk is thought to be due to decreased calcium absorption as stomach acidity is reduced by PPIs, leading to potential alterations in bone metabolism and density. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to assess bone health, educate patients on calcium and vitamin D supplementation, and consider other risk factors for osteoporosis in individuals taking PPIs long-term. While hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, and Clostridium difficile infection may be seen as adverse effects with other medications or conditions, osteoporosis is the adverse effect most closely monitored in patients taking PPIs for GERD.
A patient presents with a history of recurrent nosebleeds, easy bruising, and gum bleeding. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged bleeding time and normal platelet count, PT, and aPTT. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
A. Von Willebrand disease
B. Hemophilia A
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Factor V Leiden mutation
Correct answer:
Von Willebrand disease is a hereditary bleeding disorder that results from a deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor (vWF), a protein that plays a key role in platelet adhesion and the initiation of primary hemostasis. The clinical manifestations of von Willebrand disease include recurrent mucocutaneous bleeding, such as nosebleeds, easy bruising, and gum bleeding. Laboratory findings typically show a prolonged bleeding time due to impaired platelet function, while platelet count, PT (prothrombin time), and aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) are usually normal. This distinguishes von Willebrand disease from other bleeding disorders such as hemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency), which would show abnormal PT and aPTT due to deficiencies in specific clotting factors. Thrombocytopenia, on the other hand, would be characterized by a low platelet count
RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 30 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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Keep going past these 15 questions
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