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RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 17

RN exams · medical-surgical

RN exams medical-surgical practice questions set 17

You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five medical-surgical questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

A nurse is preparing to assist with a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) procedure for a patient. What action should the nurse prioritize to ensure patient safety during TEE?

  1. A. Placing the patient in a supine position with arms at their sides
  2. B. Administering intravenous sedation to the patient before the procedure
  3. C. Instructing the patient to refrain from eating or drinking for six hours before the procedure
  4. D. Ensuring the availability of emergency equipment and resuscitation medications
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Ensuring the availability of emergency equipment and resuscitation medications

Ensuring the availability of emergency equipment and resuscitation medications is crucial to prioritize patient safety during a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) procedure. TEE involves inserting a specialized probe (transducer) into the esophagus to obtain detailed images of the heart. While complications during TEE are rare, they can include adverse reactions to sedation, esophageal injury, arrhythmias, or other cardiac events. By having emergency equipment and resuscitation medications readily available, the healthcare team can respond promptly to any unforeseen complications or emergencies that may arise during the procedure, ensuring optimal patient safety. Placing the patient in a supine position, providing sedation, and advising the patient to fast before the procedure are important aspects of the TEE process; however, ensuring emergency preparedness takes precedence in prioritizing patient safety during the procedure.

Question 2

A characteristic of an unintentional wound is:

  1. A. Accidental
  2. B. High risk for infection
  3. C. Clean edges
  4. D. A and C
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — A and C

A and C,' as unintentional wounds are characterized by being accidental and often having clean edges, depending on the cause. 'Accidental' fits because unintentional wounds result from unplanned events like falls or cuts, not deliberate actions like surgery. 'Clean edges' applies to wounds from sharp objects (e.g., a knife slice), common in accidents, though not universal jagged edges can occur too. 'High risk for infection' isn't exclusive to unintentional wounds; it depends on contamination, not intent, and intentional wounds (e.g., surgical) can also get infected if mishandled. Combining A and C captures key traits without overgeneralizing infection risk. In nursing, recognizing these features aids assessment accidental wounds may need tetanus prophylaxis, and clean edges suggest primary closure potential. 'All of the above' (E) overstates infection specificity, making D the precise choice per wound classification principles.

Question 3

Mature naïve T cells that leave the thymus

  1. A. Are all tolerant to self-antigens because all self-reactive developing T cells have been killed in the thymus
  2. B. Might include some self-reactive T cells that have not been tolerized against a specific Ag
  3. C. Go first to LN where they acquire the ability to recognize antigen presented by MHC
  4. D. Go first to LN to be tested for self-reactivity
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Might include some self-reactive T cells that have not been tolerized against a specific Ag

The correct answer is B because mature naïve T cells that leave the thymus can include self-reactive T cells that have not been tolerized against a specific antigen. This is because the process of negative selection in the thymus eliminates most self-reactive T cells but does not catch all of them. Some self-reactive T cells may escape negative selection and circulate as mature naïve T cells. Therefore, it is possible for mature naïve T cells leaving the thymus to include self-reactive T cells that have not been tolerized against a specific antigen. Choices: A: This is incorrect because although negative selection in the thymus eliminates most self-reactive T cells, it does not catch all of them, so some self-reactive T cells may still be present in the mature naïve T cell population. C: This is incorrect because mature naïve T cells already have the ability to recognize antigens presented by MHC, which is developed in the th

Question 4

A patient with advanced heart failure expresses fear and anxiety about the progression of their illness. What is the palliative nurse's most appropriate response?

  1. A. Provide reassurance and minimize discussions about end-of-life care.
  2. B. Encourage the patient to focus on positive thoughts and avoid discussing fears.
  3. C. Offer empathetic listening and explore the patient's concerns about the future.
  4. D. Suggest distraction techniques to divert the patient's attention from their worries.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Offer empathetic listening and explore the patient's concerns about the future.

The palliative nurse's most appropriate response in this scenario is to offer empathetic listening and explore the patient's concerns about the future. By providing a compassionate and supportive environment for the patient to express their fears and anxieties, the nurse can help the patient feel heard and understood. This approach allows the nurse to address the patient's emotional needs and provide appropriate support to help them cope with their feelings. Avoiding discussions or minimizing the patient's concerns may invalidate their emotions and hinder the therapeutic relationship. Encouraging distraction techniques or focusing solely on positive thoughts may not address the underlying fears and anxieties that the patient is experiencing. Therefore, offering empathetic listening and exploring the patient's concerns is the most appropriate way for the nurse to provide holistic care for the patient with advanced heart failure.

Question 5

The nurse knows that the diagnosis of contact latex allergy is based on history and ____.

  1. A. Latex specific IgE
  2. B. finding IgE in serum
  3. C. skin patch test
  4. D. ELISA
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — skin patch test

The diagnosis of contact latex allergy is primarily based on the patient's history of exposure to latex-containing products and the development of symptoms upon contact with latex. To confirm the diagnosis, skin patch testing is performed. Skin patch testing exposes the skin to small amounts of latex allergens to observe for any localized allergic reaction, such as redness, swelling, or itchiness. This test helps determine if the individual has developed a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction to latex. Latex-specific IgE testing (choice A) and finding IgE in serum (choice B) are methods used in diagnosing immediate-type latex allergy but are not sufficient for confirming contact latex allergy specifically. ELISA (choice D) is a type of laboratory technique used for various purposes, including measuring the levels of specific substances in the blood, but it is not typically used as a diagnostic tool for contact latex allergy.

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Question 6

After teaching a client who is at risk for the formation of pressure ulcers, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which dietary choice by the client indicates a good understanding of the teaching?

  1. A. Low-fat diet with whole grains and cereals and vitamin supplements
  2. B. High-protein diet with vitamins and mineral supplements
  3. C. Vegetarian diet with nutritional supplements and fish oil capsules
  4. D. Low-fat, low-cholesterol, high-fiber, low-carbohydrate diet
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Question 7

The nurse is assessing an older adult with a pacemaker who leads a sedentary lifestyle. The client reports being unable to perform activities that require physical exertion. The nurse should further assess the client for which of the following?

  1. A. Left ventricular atrophy.
  2. B. Irregular heartbeats.
  3. C. Peripheral vascular occlusion.
  4. D. Pacemaker function.
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Question 8

Rolling' of neutrophils on endothelial cells is mediated by:

  1. A. Selectins expressed on endothelial cells
  2. B. Integrins expressed on leukocytes
  3. C. Chemokines such as CXCL-8 (IL-8)
  4. D. TNF
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Question 9

Rolling' of neutrophils on endothelial cells is mediated by:

  1. A. Selectins expressed on endothelial cells
  2. B. Integrins expressed on leukocytes
  3. C. Chemokines such as CXCL-8 (IL-8)
  4. D. TNF
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Question 10

A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with metabolic acidosis. Which compensatory mechanism is the body most likely to employ to normalize pH?

  1. A. Hyperventilation
  2. B. Increased bicarbonate reabsorption
  3. C. Increased renal excretion of hydrogen ions
  4. D. Decreased renal excretion of bicarbonate ions
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Question 11

What is one of the MAJOR challenges that a beginning nurse may encounter in her service delivery in the hospital in terms of an individual client or patient?

  1. A. Dysfunctional facilities
  2. B. Poor health seeking behaviour.
  3. C. Social determinants of health
  4. D. Stock out of essential commodities
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Question 12

The nurse is writing a plan of care for a patient receiving immune suppressants for leukemia. What would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient?

  1. A. Anxiety related to diagnosis and drug therapy
  2. B. Acute pain related to central nervous system (CNS), gastrointestinal (GI), and flu-like effects
  3. C. Risk for infection related to immune stimulation
  4. D. Imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements
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Question 13

A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select all that apply)

  1. A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
  2. B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
  3. C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
  4. D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.
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Question 14

Which nursing action for a patient who has had right hip arthroplasty can the nurse delegate to experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

  1. A. Reposition the patient every 1 to 2 hours.
  2. B. Assess for skin irritation on the patient’s back.
  3. C. Teach the patient quadriceps-setting exercises.
  4. D. Determine the patient’s pain intensity and tolerance.
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Question 15

The dermis contains which of the following?

  1. A. blood vessels
  2. B. sweat glands
  3. C. sensory nerve endings
  4. D. sebaceous glands
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About these RN exams medical-surgical questions

RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 17 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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