RN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 19
RN exams · gastrointestinal
RN exams gastrointestinal practice questionsset 19
You read GI bleed, liver, and nutrition stems and pick the intervention that protects the patient now. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five gastrointestinal questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
.Which set of guidelines is intended to assess nutrient adequacy or planning intakes of population groups, not individuals?
A. Old recommended dietary allowances (RDA)
B. Estimated average requirement (EAR)
C. New recommended dietary allowances (RDA)
D. Tolerable upper intake level (UL)
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Estimated average requirement (EAR)
The Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) is a set of guidelines intended to assess nutrient adequacy or plan intakes for population groups, not individuals. It represents the average daily nutrient intake level estimated to meet the requirement of half of the healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. The Old Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA) and New RDA are individual-based guidelines that aim to meet the needs of 97-98% of individuals in a specific life stage and gender group. The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) is the highest level of daily nutrient intake that is unlikely to pose risks of adverse health effects. Therefore, the EAR is the correct choice for assessing nutrient adequacy or planning intakes for population groups.
Question 2
The nurse is caring for a patient with a history of falls. Which intervention is most important to include in the care plan?
A. Place the bed in the highest position.
B. Keep the call light within reach.
C. Keep all four side rails up.
D. Encourage the patient to walk independently.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Keep the call light within reach.
The correct answer is B: 'Keep the call light within reach.' This is the most important intervention for a patient with a history of falls because it allows the patient to quickly and easily call for assistance when needed, reducing the risk of falls. Placing the bed in the highest position (A) may increase the risk of falls when the patient tries to get out of bed. Keeping all four side rails up (C) can sometimes lead to patient attempts to climb over them, increasing fall risk. Encouraging the patient to walk independently (D) without assessing their current mobility and fall risk may also increase the likelihood of falls. Therefore, ensuring the call light is within reach is the most critical intervention to promote patient safety and prevent falls.
Question 3
.Each correlation between vitamin D and sun exposure is accurate, except one. Which is the exception?
A. The body has the ability to produce adequate amounts of vitamin D from sunlight.
B. UV radiation penetrates uncovered skin and converts a precursor of vitamin D to vitamin D3.
C. Sunscreen does not block the formation of vitamin D3.
D. By the age of 70 years, the skin generally produces vitamin D at only half the level it did at the age of 20 years.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Sunscreen does not block the formation of vitamin D3.
The correct answer is C because sunscreen actually blocks UV radiation, which is necessary for the conversion of a precursor of vitamin D to vitamin D3 in the skin. Sunscreen is designed to protect the skin from harmful UV rays, including the ones responsible for triggering the production of vitamin D. Therefore, using sunscreen can interfere with the body's ability to produce vitamin D from sun exposure. Options A, B, and D are accurate statements about the relationship between vitamin D and sun exposure. The body can produce vitamin D from sunlight, UV radiation converts a precursor of vitamin D to vitamin D3, and the skin's ability to produce vitamin D decreases with age. C is the exception as sunscreen does indeed block the formation of vitamin D3.
Question 4
.During early tooth development, vitamin A deficiency leads to enamel hypoplasia and defective dentin formation. Because of its effect on soft tissues and bone, vitamin A contributes to normal spacing of teeth.
A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. The first statement is true; the second is false.
D. The first statement is false; the second is true.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Both statements are true.
The first statement is true as vitamin A deficiency during early tooth development can indeed lead to enamel hypoplasia and defective dentin formation. Enamel hypoplasia is a condition where the enamel layer of the tooth is not properly formed, leading to defects. Defective dentin formation can also occur due to the essential role of vitamin A in tooth development. The second statement is true because vitamin A plays a crucial role in the development of soft tissues and bone, including the proper spacing of teeth. Adequate levels of vitamin A help ensure normal growth and development of these structures, which in turn contributes to the correct alignment and spacing of teeth. Therefore, both statements are true, making option A the correct answer.
Question 5
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a patient with type 2 diabetes. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A. I will check my blood sugar before meals.
B. I will avoid exercise to prevent hypoglycemia.
C. I will take my medications as prescribed.
D. I will follow a healthy diet.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — I will avoid exercise to prevent hypoglycemia.
The correct answer is B: 'I will avoid exercise to prevent hypoglycemia.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because exercise is important for managing diabetes and can actually help regulate blood sugar levels. Patients with diabetes should be encouraged to engage in regular physical activity but should also be cautious about potential hypoglycemia by monitoring blood sugar levels before and after exercise. Checking blood sugar before meals (A), taking medications as prescribed (C), and following a healthy diet (D) are all essential components of managing type 2 diabetes. It is crucial for patients to understand the importance of exercise in their diabetes management plan to promote overall health and blood sugar control.
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Question 6
The nurse is assessing a patient with a chest tube. Which finding is most concerning?
A. No drainage in the collection chamber
B. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
C. Fluctuation in the water seal chamber
D. Patient reports pain at the insertion site
Correct answer:
Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber is the most concerning finding when assessing a patient with a chest tube. Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak in the system, which can lead to a pneumothorax or compromise the effectiveness of the chest tube in re-expanding the lung. No drainage in the collection chamber may indicate a lack of drainage, but it is not immediately life-threatening. Fluctuation in the water seal chamber is an expected finding indicating normal functioning of the chest tube system. Pain at the insertion site is common and can be managed with appropriate pain medication. Therefore, the presence of continuous bubbling poses the highest risk to the patient's respiratory status and requires immediate attention.
.Each is true of water-soluble vitamins, except one. Which is it?
A. Act as coenzymes
B. Deficiencies develop rapidly
C. Daily intake is necessary
D. Absorbed in the jejunum
Correct answer:
Water-soluble vitamins are essential organic compounds that perform various functions in the body, acting as coenzymes to assist in metabolic reactions. These vitamins, such as vitamin C and the B-complex vitamins, are not stored in the body and need to be consumed regularly through daily intake to prevent deficiencies. Water-soluble vitamins are absorbed in the small intestine, particularly in the jejunum. However, deficiencies in water-soluble vitamins typically develop slowly over time due to the body's limited ability to store them, unlike fat-soluble vitamins which can accumulate in the body and lead to rapid deficiencies. Therefore, option B is the correct answer as deficiencies in water-soluble vitamins do not develop rapidly.
During a home visit, the nurse finds scatter rugs all over the house, the kitchen sink full of dirty dishes, a strong odor from the toilet, and several outdated food items in the pantry and refrigerator. The 76-year-old patient is coherent with occasional forgetfulness, disheveled with stained clothing, and generally ungroomed. A possible nursing problem would be:
A. Moral ambiguity.
B. Powerlessness.
C. Altered self-care ability.
D. Altered nutrition.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Altered self-care ability. This nursing problem is indicated by the patient's disheveled appearance, stained clothing, and poor hygiene practices. The scatter rugs, dirty dishes, and outdated food items suggest a lack of ability to maintain a safe and clean living environment. The patient's occasional forgetfulness may contribute to the inability to perform self-care tasks effectively. Moral ambiguity (A) refers to ethical dilemmas, which are not evident in this scenario. Powerlessness (B) relates to lack of control over one's situation, which is not explicitly described. Altered nutrition (D) is not the primary concern in this case, as the focus is on the patient's self-care abilities and living conditions.
The nurse is teaching a patient about lifestyle changes to manage hypertension. Which recommendation is most appropriate?
A. Increase intake of caffeinated beverages.
B. Decrease physical activity.
C. Follow a low-sodium diet.
D. Avoid smoking cessation.
Correct answer:
The most appropriate recommendation for managing hypertension is to follow a low-sodium diet (Option C). High sodium intake is linked to increased blood pressure, so reducing sodium in the diet can help lower blood pressure levels. This is a well-established lifestyle change recommended for individuals with hypertension. Increasing intake of caffeinated beverages (Option A) can actually have a negative impact on blood pressure. Decreasing physical activity (Option B) is not recommended as exercise is important for managing hypertension. Avoiding smoking cessation (Option D) is incorrect as smoking can worsen hypertension. Therefore, following a low-sodium diet is the most appropriate recommendation for managing hypertension.
Which of the following is not a side effect of the Dieuretics (Loop dieuretics)?
A. Alkalosis
B. Nausea
C. Hypotension
D. Potassium deficits
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: 'Nausea.' Loop diuretics are commonly associated with side effects such as alkalosis, hypotension, and potassium deficits due to their mechanism of action in the kidneys. Alkalosis can occur as a result of electrolyte imbalances caused by excessive diuresis. Hypotension may occur due to the reduction in blood volume and decreased vascular resistance from diuresis. Potassium deficits are common due to increased excretion of potassium in the urine. However, nausea is not typically a direct side effect of loop diuretics. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients on loop diuretics for electrolyte imbalances and other potential side effects to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes.
The nurse is providing care to a patient with Alzheimer\'s disease. Which intervention is most appropriate to manage the patient\'s confusion?
A. Provide a structured routine
B. Use physical restraints
C. Administer antipsychotic medications
D. Allow the patient to nap frequently
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: 'Provide a structured routine.' Patients with Alzheimer's disease often experience confusion due to cognitive decline. Establishing a structured routine can help provide a sense of predictability and familiarity, which can reduce confusion and anxiety. Physical restraints (B) are not recommended as they can lead to agitation and worsen the patient's mental state. Antipsychotic medications (C) should only be used as a last resort due to potential side effects. Allowing the patient to nap frequently (D) may disrupt their routine and exacerbate confusion. Therefore, providing a structured routine is the most appropriate intervention to manage the patient's confusion in Alzheimer's disease.
Which area is the major focus of Healthy People 2020 and the primary mechanism through which to improve the health of Americans in the second decade of the century?
A. Research funding
B. Health information distribution
C. Healthy lifestyle encouragement
D. Health improvement program designs
Correct answer:
The major focus of Healthy People 2020 is on promoting healthy lifestyle choices and behaviors among Americans. By encouraging individuals to adopt healthier habits such as regular physical activity, balanced nutrition, and avoiding harmful substances, the overall health of the population can be improved. This approach recognizes that prevention and wellness play a crucial role in reducing the burden of chronic diseases and improving quality of life. Research funding, health information distribution, and health improvement program designs are important elements but the primary mechanism for improving the health of Americans in Healthy People 2020 is through promoting healthy lifestyle encouragement (Option C).
.Each is true of rickets, except one. Which is the exception?
A. Rickets is being diagnosed more frequently in the United States.
B. Rickets is caused by vitamin C deficiency.
C. Tachetic deformities such as bow legs or knock-knees develop.
D. A narrow and distorted chest occurs.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: "Rickets is caused by vitamin C deficiency." Rickets is actually caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, not vitamin C. Vitamin D is necessary for the absorption of calcium and phosphorus, which are essential for healthy bone development. The other options are true statements about rickets. A: The prevalence of rickets is increasing in the United States due to factors like decreased sun exposure and poor diet. C: Tachetic deformities, such as bow legs or knock-knees, are common symptoms of rickets as the bones fail to develop properly. D: A narrow and distorted chest can result from rickets due to the softening of bones. Therefore, option B is the exception among the statements provided.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a patient with heart failure. Which statement indicates that the patient needs further teaching?
A. I will weigh myself every day.
B. I will take my diuretic in the evening.
C. I will limit my sodium intake.
D. I will report any shortness of breath to my doctor.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B. Taking a diuretic in the evening is not ideal as it may result in increased nighttime urination, disrupting sleep patterns. Diuretics should typically be taken earlier in the day to prevent disturbances in sleep. Option A is correct because daily weighing can help monitor fluid retention, a common issue in heart failure. Option C is correct as limiting sodium intake helps reduce fluid retention and strain on the heart. Option D is also correct as reporting shortness of breath is crucial in heart failure management to prevent complications. Therefore, the patient needs further teaching on the timing of diuretic intake to optimize its effectiveness and reduce disruptions in sleep.
The nurse compares the characteristics of a health maintenance organization (HMO) and a preferred provider organization (PPO). Which information should the nurse include about HMOs?
A. HMOs require a set fee of each member monthly.
B. HMOs allow the member to select his health care provider.
C. HMOs permit admission to any facility the member prefers.
D. HMOs offer unlimited diagnostic tests and treatments.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because HMOs typically require members to pay a set fee each month, known as a premium, in exchange for access to a network of healthcare providers. This fixed fee structure is a fundamental characteristic of HMOs, as it helps control costs by providing comprehensive care at a predictable price. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because HMOs generally limit members to a specific network of providers, do not allow members to freely choose their healthcare providers, and often require referrals for specialist care. Understanding the key features of HMOs, such as fixed monthly fees and provider networks, is crucial for nurses to educate patients about their healthcare options.
RN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 19 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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