You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The process of ____________ helps communities prevent disease.
A. Sterilization
B. Sanitation
C. Asepsis
D. Immunity
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Sanitation
The correct answer is B: Sanitation. Sanitation involves maintaining cleanliness and hygiene to prevent the spread of disease-causing germs in communities. By improving sanitation practices such as proper waste disposal, clean water supply, and personal hygiene, communities can effectively prevent the transmission of diseases.
A: Sterilization is the process of eliminating all microorganisms, including beneficial ones, and is more focused on medical settings rather than community disease prevention.
C: Asepsis refers to the absence of disease-causing microorganisms and is typically used in medical settings to prevent infections during procedures.
D: Immunity is the body's ability to resist infections and diseases, which is not a process but a biological mechanism.
Question 2
A nurse cares for a client who has packing inserted for posterior nasal bleeding. What action would the nurse take first?
A. Assess the client’s pain level.
B. Keep the client’s head elevated.
C. Teach the client about the causes of nasal bleeding.
D. Assess the client’s airway.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Assess the client’s airway.
The correct answer is D: Assess the client's airway. This is the priority action because airway patency is always the top priority in any emergency situation. In this case, the packing for posterior nasal bleeding could potentially obstruct the client's airway, leading to respiratory distress or compromise. By assessing the client's airway first, the nurse can ensure that the client is able to breathe effectively.
Choice A: Assessing the client's pain level is important but not the first priority in this situation.
Choice B: Keeping the client's head elevated may be beneficial, but it is not the immediate priority over assessing the airway.
Choice C: Teaching the client about the causes of nasal bleeding is important for education but not urgent in this situation.
Question 3
Which of the following would be the best way for an NA to respond to a resident with AD who exhibits inappropriate sexual behavior?
A. Let other residents know.
B. Take the resident to a private area.
C. Inform others that the resident has a dirty mind.
D. Reprimand the resident loudly.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Take the resident to a private area.
The best way for an NA to respond to a resident with AD exhibiting inappropriate sexual behavior is to take the resident to a private area (Option B). This approach respects the resident's dignity and privacy while addressing the behavior discreetly. By taking the resident to a private area, the NA can provide appropriate redirection or support without embarrassing or shaming the resident publicly. This action promotes a therapeutic and respectful environment for the resident.
Option A is incorrect because it violates the resident's privacy and confidentiality. Option C is incorrect as it is disrespectful and stigmatizing towards the resident. Option D is inappropriate as reprimanding loudly can escalate the situation and cause distress to the resident and others.
Question 4
The nurse is preparing a patient for surgery. Which goal is a priority for assessing the patient before surgery?
A. Plan for care after the procedure.
B. Establish a patient's baseline of normal function.
C. Educate the patient and family about the procedure.
D. Gather appropriate equipment for the patient's needs.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Establish a patient's baseline of normal function.
The correct answer is B: Establish a patient's baseline of normal function. Before surgery, assessing the patient's baseline helps identify any deviations from normal, enabling early detection of potential complications. It provides crucial information for planning perioperative care and interventions.
Choice A (Plan for care after the procedure) is important but not the priority. Assessing the patient's baseline comes first to ensure a smooth surgical process.
Choice C (Educate the patient and family about the procedure) is essential, but assessing the baseline takes precedence to ensure patient safety.
Choice D (Gather appropriate equipment for the patient's needs) is necessary but is a task that usually follows the assessment of the patient's baseline.
Question 5
An adult patient with a history of allergies comes to the clinic complaining of wheezing and difficulty in breathing when working in his yard. The assessment findings include tachypnea, the use of accessory neck muscles, prolonged expiration, intercostal retractions, decreased breath sounds, and expiratory wheezes. The nurse interprets that these assessment findings are consistent with:
A. Asthma.
B. Atelectasis.
C. Lobar pneumonia.
D. Heart failure.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Asthma.
The correct answer is A: Asthma. The assessment findings described are classic signs of an asthma exacerbation. Tachypnea, prolonged expiration, intercostal retractions, and expiratory wheezes are all indicative of narrowed airways and difficulty breathing, which are characteristic of asthma. The use of accessory neck muscles indicates increased effort to breathe. Decreased breath sounds are due to air trapping in the lungs. In contrast, choices B, C, and D do not typically present with the combination of symptoms described. Atelectasis usually presents with decreased breath sounds and crackles. Lobar pneumonia typically presents with fever, productive cough, and focal chest signs. Heart failure presents with bilateral crackles, edema, and jugular venous distension.
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Question 6
During auscultation of the lungs of an adult patient, the nurse notices the presence of bronchophony. The nurse should assess for signs of which condition?
A. Airway obstruction.
B. Emphysema.
C. Pulmonary consolidation.
D. Asthma.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Pulmonary consolidation. Bronchophony is a finding in which spoken words are heard distinctly and clearly through the stethoscope, indicating increased lung density. This is commonly seen in pulmonary consolidation, where air-filled lung tissue becomes filled with fluid or solid material. This can be caused by conditions such as pneumonia or lung tumors. Assessing for signs of pulmonary consolidation, such as increased tactile fremitus, dullness to percussion, and crackles on auscultation, is crucial. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bronchophony is not typically associated with these conditions. Airway obstruction, emphysema, and asthma have different characteristic auscultation findings and are not directly linked to bronchophony.
During auscultation of the lungs of an adult patient, the nurse notices the presence of bronchophony. The nurse should assess for signs of which condition?
A. Airway obstruction.
B. Emphysema.
C. Pulmonary consolidation.
D. Asthma.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Pulmonary consolidation. Bronchophony is a finding in which spoken words are heard distinctly and clearly through the stethoscope, indicating increased lung density. This is commonly seen in pulmonary consolidation, where air-filled lung tissue becomes filled with fluid or solid material. This can be caused by conditions such as pneumonia or lung tumors. Assessing for signs of pulmonary consolidation, such as increased tactile fremitus, dullness to percussion, and crackles on auscultation, is crucial. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bronchophony is not typically associated with these conditions. Airway obstruction, emphysema, and asthma have different characteristic auscultation findings and are not directly linked to bronchophony.
An adult patient with a history of allergies comes to the clinic complaining of wheezing and difficulty in breathing when working in his yard. The assessment findings include tachypnea, the use of accessory neck muscles, prolonged expiration, intercostal retractions, decreased breath sounds, and expiratory wheezes. The nurse interprets that these assessment findings are consistent with:
A. Asthma.
B. Atelectasis.
C. Lobar pneumonia.
D. Heart failure.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Asthma. The assessment findings described are classic signs of an asthma exacerbation. Tachypnea, prolonged expiration, intercostal retractions, and expiratory wheezes are all indicative of narrowed airways and difficulty breathing, which are characteristic of asthma. The use of accessory neck muscles indicates increased effort to breathe. Decreased breath sounds are due to air trapping in the lungs. In contrast, choices B, C, and D do not typically present with the combination of symptoms described. Atelectasis usually presents with decreased breath sounds and crackles. Lobar pneumonia typically presents with fever, productive cough, and focal chest signs. Heart failure presents with bilateral crackles, edema, and jugular venous distension.
A 6-year-old boy is struck by an automobile and brought to the E The preferred route of venous access in this patient is:
A. Percutaneous femoral vein cannulation
B. Cutdown on the saphenous vein at the ankle
C. Intraosseous catheter placement in the proximal tibia
D. Percutaneous peripheral veins in the upper extremities
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D, percutaneous peripheral veins in the upper extremities. In a 6-year-old boy, the preferred route of venous access is peripheral veins in the upper extremities because they are easily accessible and have lower complication rates compared to other options. This route allows for rapid administration of fluids and medications in emergency situations. Percutaneous femoral vein cannulation (A) may be more invasive and carries a higher risk of complications. Cutdown on the saphenous vein at the ankle (B) is not ideal due to its location and potential difficulty in accessing. Intraosseous catheter placement in the proximal tibia (C) is a viable option but may be more invasive and time-consuming compared to peripheral veins in the upper extremities.
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of diabetes. The patient reports feeling shaky. Which intervention should the nurse perform first?
A. Check the patient's blood glucose level.
B. Administer oral glucose.
C. Administer a corticosteroid injection.
D. Encourage the patient to exercise.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Check the patient's blood glucose level. This is the first step because the patient's symptoms of feeling shaky could indicate hypoglycemia, a common complication of diabetes. By checking the blood glucose level, the nurse can confirm if the patient's symptoms are due to low blood sugar and then take appropriate action. Administering oral glucose would be the next step if the blood glucose level is low, as it helps raise blood sugar quickly. Administering a corticosteroid injection is not indicated for hypoglycemia and may cause a delay in addressing the immediate issue. Encouraging the patient to exercise is also not appropriate when the patient is experiencing symptoms of low blood sugar, as it could further decrease blood glucose levels.
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of diabetes. The patient reports feeling shaky. Which intervention should the nurse perform first?
A. Check the patient's blood glucose level.
B. Administer oral glucose.
C. Administer a corticosteroid injection.
D. Encourage the patient to exercise.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Check the patient's blood glucose level. This is the first step because the patient's symptoms of feeling shaky could indicate hypoglycemia, a common complication of diabetes. By checking the blood glucose level, the nurse can confirm if the patient's symptoms are due to low blood sugar and then take appropriate action. Administering oral glucose would be the next step if the blood glucose level is low, as it helps raise blood sugar quickly. Administering a corticosteroid injection is not indicated for hypoglycemia and may cause a delay in addressing the immediate issue. Encouraging the patient to exercise is also not appropriate when the patient is experiencing symptoms of low blood sugar, as it could further decrease blood glucose levels.
The mother of a 3-month-old infant states that her baby has not been gaining weight. With further questioning, the nurse finds that the infant falls asleep after nursing and wakes up after a short time, hungry again. What other information would the nurse want to have?
A. Infant's sleeping position
B. Sibling history of eating disorders
C. Amount of background noise when eating
D. Presence of dyspnea or diaphoresis when sucking
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Presence of dyspnea or diaphoresis when sucking. This information is crucial as it could indicate a medical issue such as a respiratory problem or heart condition affecting the baby's ability to feed properly, leading to poor weight gain. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) and diaphoresis (excessive sweating) during sucking are red flags that require immediate medical attention.
A: The infant's sleeping position is important for preventing Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) but not directly related to the feeding issue.
B: Sibling history of eating disorders may not be relevant to the current infant's feeding difficulties.
C: Amount of background noise when eating is unlikely to be the primary factor affecting the infant's weight gain issue.
A 26 y/o seat-belted driver presents with diffuse abdominal tenderness and free air on abdominal films. The patient should:
A. "Undergo peritoneal lavage"
B. Undergo prompt celiotomy
C. Have a contrast x-ray of her GI-tract
D. Be carefully observed for further evidence of intraabdominal injury
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B, "Undergo prompt celiotomy." This is because the presence of free air on abdominal films in a seat-belted driver with diffuse abdominal tenderness indicates a likely intra-abdominal injury requiring surgical intervention. Prompt celiotomy allows for exploration of the abdomen to identify and repair any internal injuries.
Choice A, peritoneal lavage, is not recommended as it does not provide definitive treatment for the underlying intra-abdominal injury. Choice C, contrast x-ray of the GI-tract, is unnecessary and delays definitive management. Choice D, observation for further evidence of intraabdominal injury, is not appropriate given the already identified signs of a serious abdominal injury that require immediate surgical intervention.
A 6-year-old boy is struck by an automobile and brought to the E The preferred route of venous access in this patient is:
A. Percutaneous femoral vein cannulation
B. Cutdown on the saphenous vein at the ankle
C. Intraosseous catheter placement in the proximal tibia
D. Percutaneous peripheral veins in the upper extremities
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D, percutaneous peripheral veins in the upper extremities. In a 6-year-old boy, the preferred route of venous access is peripheral veins in the upper extremities because they are easily accessible and have lower complication rates compared to other options. This route allows for rapid administration of fluids and medications in emergency situations. Percutaneous femoral vein cannulation (A) may be more invasive and carries a higher risk of complications. Cutdown on the saphenous vein at the ankle (B) is not ideal due to its location and potential difficulty in accessing. Intraosseous catheter placement in the proximal tibia (C) is a viable option but may be more invasive and time-consuming compared to peripheral veins in the upper extremities.
Scoliosis can be classified as structural or functional. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of structural scoliosis?
A. Most cases are idiopathic
B. It is reversible
C. Subtype of structural scoliosis includes idiopathic
D. Subtypes of structural scoliosis include congenital or acquired
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: It is reversible. Structural scoliosis involves irreversible changes in the spine's alignment, such as rotation and curvature due to factors like abnormal growth or spinal deformities. Reversibility is not a characteristic of structural scoliosis.
A: Most cases are idiopathic - This is a characteristic of structural scoliosis as idiopathic scoliosis is the most common type.
C: Subtype of structural scoliosis includes idiopathic - This supports the characteristic of idiopathic scoliosis within the structural category.
D: Subtypes of structural scoliosis include congenital or acquired - This is correct as structural scoliosis can be caused by congenital abnormalities or acquired conditions, supporting the definition of structural scoliosis.
RN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 39 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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