RN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 18

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RN exams fundamentals practice questions set 18

You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five fundamentals questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

Your client has an allergy to both penicillin and latex. Which of these pathophysiological facts should you apply when you are providing to this client?

  1. A. The sensitizing dose of penicillin can lead to anaphylaxis.
  2. B. The second dose of penicillin can lead to distributive shock.
  3. C. You should be aware of the fact that about 10% of the population has an allergy to both penicillin and latex.
  4. D. You should be aware of the fact that about 20% of the population has an allergy to both penicillin and latex.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — The sensitizing dose of penicillin can lead to anaphylaxis.

The correct answer is A. When a client has an allergy to both penicillin and latex, it is important to consider the risk of anaphylaxis from the sensitizing dose of penicillin. Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur upon exposure to an allergen. In this case, the client's history of allergies indicates a heightened risk for anaphylaxis with penicillin. This pathophysiological fact is crucial to consider when providing care to this client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the specific risk associated with the client's allergy to both penicillin and latex. Choice B refers to distributive shock, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. Choices C and D provide statistics about the prevalence of allergies to penicillin and latex in the population, but these do not directly impact the care of a client with allergies to both substances.

Question 2

A 45-year-old woman presents with a complaint of chronic back pain. She describes the pain as dull, aching, and constant, with no radiation. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis and takes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. On examination, she has tenderness over the lower lumbar spine. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. A. Osteoporotic fracture
  2. B. Herniated disc
  3. C. Spinal stenosis
  4. D. Mechanical low back pain
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Mechanical low back pain

The most likely diagnosis for the 45-year-old woman with chronic back pain, tenderness over the lower lumbar spine, and a history of rheumatoid arthritis is mechanical low back pain (Choice D). 1. Chronic dull, aching, constant pain with no radiation is characteristic of mechanical low back pain. 2. Presence of tenderness over the lower lumbar spine suggests a musculoskeletal origin, consistent with mechanical low back pain. 3. History of rheumatoid arthritis increases the likelihood of musculoskeletal issues like mechanical low back pain. Summary: - A: Osteoporotic fracture is less likely due to absence of acute onset, severe pain, and risk factors like advanced age or prolonged corticosteroid use. - B: Herniated disc typically presents with radicular pain (radiating pain down the leg), which is not described in this case. - C: Spinal stenosis usually presents with neurogenic claudication (pain with walking) and neurological

Question 3

Which of the following best describes the general survey component of the physical examination?

  1. A. It assesses the patient's chief complaint.
  2. B. It includes observations about the patient's appearance, behavior, and mobility.
  3. C. It documents findings from a review of systems.
  4. D. It evaluates the patient's vital signs.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — It includes observations about the patient's appearance, behavior, and mobility.

The correct answer is B because the general survey component of the physical examination focuses on observations related to the patient's appearance, behavior, and mobility. This step is crucial in gathering initial information about the patient's overall health status and can provide important clues for further evaluation. Assessing the patient's appearance can reveal signs of distress, nutritional status, or hygiene. Observing behavior can indicate mental status or emotional state. Mobility assessment can identify physical limitations or abnormalities. A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Assessing the patient's chief complaint is part of the focused history taking, not the general survey component. C: Documenting findings from a review of systems is part of the comprehensive history taking, not the general survey. D: Evaluating vital signs is a separate component of the physical examination and not part of the general survey.

Question 4

Your client has an allergy to both penicillin and latex. Which of these pathophysiological facts should you apply when you are providing to this client?

  1. A. The sensitizing dose of penicillin can lead to anaphylaxis.
  2. B. The second dose of penicillin can lead to distributive shock.
  3. C. You should be aware of the fact that about 10% of the population has an allergy to both penicillin and latex.
  4. D. You should be aware of the fact that about 20% of the population has an allergy to both penicillin and latex.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — The sensitizing dose of penicillin can lead to anaphylaxis.

The correct answer is A. When a client has an allergy to both penicillin and latex, it is important to consider the risk of anaphylaxis from the sensitizing dose of penicillin. Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur upon exposure to an allergen. In this case, the client's history of allergies indicates a heightened risk for anaphylaxis with penicillin. This pathophysiological fact is crucial to consider when providing care to this client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the specific risk associated with the client's allergy to both penicillin and latex. Choice B refers to distributive shock, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. Choices C and D provide statistics about the prevalence of allergies to penicillin and latex in the population, but these do not directly impact the care of a client with allergies to both substances.

Question 5

After the blood transfusion, you assessed the client for blood transfusion reactions. The following assessments were noted: HR: 120 bpm, Pulse: +4 in quality, presence of fine, short, high pitched crackling at base. Which of the following is your FIRST action?

  1. A. Maintain bed rest with legs elevated.
  2. B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position.
  3. C. Increase the rate of infusion of intravenous fluids.
  4. D. Consult with the primary health care provider (PHCP) regarding initiation of oxygen therapy.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Consult with the primary health care provider (PHCP) regarding initiation of oxygen therapy.

The correct first action is D: Consult with the primary health care provider (PHCP) regarding initiation of oxygen therapy. This is because the client is showing signs of a potential transfusion reaction, likely a pulmonary embolism. The client's rapid heart rate, bounding pulse, and crackling sound at the base suggest a possible pulmonary issue. Oxygen therapy is crucial to improve oxygenation and stabilize the client's condition. Consulting with the PHCP ensures timely intervention and appropriate management. A: Maintaining bed rest with legs elevated would not address the potential respiratory distress the client is experiencing. B: Placing the client in high-Fowler's position may help improve oxygenation, but consulting the PHCP for oxygen therapy is the priority. C: Increasing the rate of IV fluids is not the priority when the client is showing signs of a potential serious complication like a pulmonary embolism.

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Question 6

Under which of the following conditions should a nursing assistant not take an oral temperature on a person?

  1. A. The person has influenza.
  2. B. The person almost certainly has a fever.
  3. C. The person is over six years old.
  4. D. The person is confused or disoriented.
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Question 7

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a bloodborne pathogen. The nurse splashes blood above the glove to intact skin while discontinuing an intravenous (IV) infusion. Which step(s) will the nurse take next?

  1. A. Obtain an alcohol swab, remove the blood with an alcohol swab, and continue care.
  2. B. Immediately wash the site with soap and running water, and seek guidance from the manager.
  3. C. Do nothing; accidentally getting splashed with blood happens frequently and is part of the job.
  4. D. Delay washing of the site until the nurse is finished providing care to the patient.
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Question 8

An 18 y/o man presents with paralysis in both legs and arms after a motorcycle crash. His BP is 60/40 and pulse 140 bpm. He should:

  1. A. "Undergo exploratory celiotomy"
  2. B. Be treated for neurogenic shock
  3. C. Be treated for hypovolemic shock
  4. D. Undergo immediate nasotracheal intubation
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Question 9

The nurse is performing an assessment on a patient who will begin taking propranolol (Inderal) to treat hypertension. The nurse learns that the patient has a history of asthma and diabetes. The nurse will take which action?

  1. A. Administer the medication and monitor the patient's serum glucose.
  2. B. Contact the provider to discuss another type antihypertensive medication.
  3. C. Request an order for renal function tests prior to administering this drug.
  4. D. Teach the patient about the risks of combining herbal medications with this drug.
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Question 10

A client requires minor surgery for removal of a basal cell tumor. The anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar), 60g IV. After Ketamine administration, the nurse should monitor the client for:

  1. A. Muscle rigidity and spasms
  2. B. Hiccups
  3. C. Extrapyramidal reactions
  4. D. Respiratory depression
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Question 11

A nurse teaches a client who is at risk for hyponatremia. Which statement does the nurse include in this client’s teaching?

  1. A. “Have you spouse watch you for irritability and anxiety.”
  2. B. “Notify the clinic if you notice muscle twitching.”
  3. C. “Call your primary health care provider for diarrhea.”
  4. D. “Bake or grill your meat rather than frying it.”
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Question 12

A focus of healthcare today is community-based care. What is community-based care?

  1. A. care provided to patients within a defined geographic area
  2. B. a focus on providing appropriate care for mental health
  3. C. a focus on the health of the community
  4. D. an emphasis on population-based care
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Question 13

The nurse is caring for a patient in the operating suite who is experiencing hypercarbia, tachypnea, tachycardia, premature ventricular contractions, and muscle rigidity. Which condition does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?

  1. A. Malignant hyperthermia
  2. B. Fluid imbalance
  3. C. Hemorrhage
  4. D. Hypoxia
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Question 14

You are called to a scene for a 48-year-old male presenting with sudden onset of severe shortness of breath, tachypnea, and a rapid pulse. He is alert and oriented, and physical exam reveals a swollen right calf with tenderness. Which condition is most likely causing his symptoms?

  1. A. Acute myocardial infarction
  2. B. Pulmonary embolism
  3. C. Tension pneumothorax
  4. D. Severe asthma attack
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Question 15

When assessing a newborn infant who is 5 minutes old, the nurse knows which of these statements to be true?

  1. A. The left ventricle is larger and weighs more than the right ventricle.
  2. B. The circulation of a newborn is identical to that of an adult.
  3. C. Blood can flow into the left side of the heart through an opening in the atrial septum.
  4. D. The foramen ovale closes just minutes before birth, and the ductus arteriosus closes immediately after.
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About these RN exams fundamentals questions

RN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 18 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.